JKSSB JKPSI Latest MCQs 2026: 100 Tough Questions with Answers
07:58 PMOctober 24, 2026

JKSSB JKPSI Latest MCQs 2026: 100 Tough Questions with Answers

Jammu and Kashmir Police Sub-Inspector (JKPSI) examination? Strong conceptual knowledge, regular MCQ practice and a clear understanding of the prescribed syllabus are essential for improving your performance. JK Exam Library brings you a challenging practice set of 100 multiple-choice questions covering important areas of general knowledge, Jammu and Kashmir history and geography, Indian polity, general science, reasoning, mathematics, English and computer awareness.

This practice set is designed for candidates who have already studied the basics and want to test their understanding through statement-based and application-oriented questions. Instead of focusing only on direct factual questions, several MCQs require you to evaluate statements, identify incorrect conclusions, apply formulas or distinguish between closely related concepts.

JKPSI preparation: important instructions

Candidates should first identify the exact recruitment notification for which they are preparing. The JKSSB Sub-Inspector Executive and Sub-Inspector Telecommunication examinations may have different subject weightages and requirements. Always follow the syllabus published for your particular post on the official JKSSB website.

The following questions are original practice material, not official previous-year questions. Current-affairs facts and recruitment dates should be revised separately from verified, up-to-date sources.

How to use these 100 MCQs

  1. Attempt every question before checking the answer.

  2. Pay special attention to statement-based questions and conceptual traps.

  3. Record incorrect answers and revise the relevant topic.

  4. Reattempt difficult questions after two or three days.

  5. Combine this practice set with official syllabus revision and previous-year papers.

Download Complete JKPSI study material with full mocktests

Section 1: Jammu & Kashmir GK (Questions 1–20)

No.

Statement-based MCQ

Options

Answer

1

Consider these statements about the Indus river system: (I) The Jhelum is a tributary of the Indus. (II) The Chenab is formed by the Chandra and Bhaga rivers. Which is correct?

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both I and II; D. Neither

C

2

Regarding Wular Lake: (I) It is located in Kashmir. (II) It is associated with the Jhelum river system.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

3

Which statements about the Kashmir Valley are correct? (I) It lies between the Pir Panjal and Greater Himalayan ranges. (II) The Jhelum drains much of the valley.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

4

Consider the historical statements: (I) Lalitaditya Muktapida was associated with the Karkota dynasty. (II) Kalhana wrote the Rajatarangini.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

5

Which statements about the Dogra period are correct? (I) Gulab Singh founded Dogra rule in Jammu and Kashmir. (II) The Treaty of Amritsar was signed in 1846.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

6

Regarding the Jhelum: (I) It originates at Verinag. (II) It flows through Srinagar.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

7

Consider these statements about Jammu and Kashmir's climate: (I) Altitude influences temperature. (II) Western disturbances can bring winter precipitation.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

8

Which statements about saffron cultivation are correct? (I) Pampore is well known for saffron. (II) Saffron is obtained from the flower's stigmas.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

9

Consider the Indus Waters Treaty: (I) It was signed in 1960. (II) It concerns the sharing of Indus basin waters between India and Pakistan.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

10

Regarding Dachigam National Park: (I) It is near Srinagar. (II) It is known for the endangered Hangul deer.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

11

Which statements about Jammu and Kashmir's traditional crafts are correct? (I) Pashmina is associated with fine wool. (II) Papier-mâché is a traditional craft.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

12

Regarding the Chenab river: (I) It is part of the Indus river system. (II) It is formed by the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga rivers.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

13

Which statements about Kashmir's Karewa formations are correct? (I) They are associated with lacustrine deposits. (II) They are important for saffron cultivation in some areas.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

14

Regarding Jammu and Kashmir's constitutional history: (I) Article 370 was part of the original Constitution of India. (II) The constitutional changes concerning Article 370 took place in August 2019.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

15

Which statements about the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, are correct? (I) It provided for the creation of two Union Territories. (II) The reorganisation took effect on 31 October 2019.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

16

Regarding the Pir Panjal range: (I) It forms part of the Lesser Himalayas. (II) It separates the Kashmir Valley from parts of the Jammu region.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

17

Which statements about the Mughal road are correct? (I) It connects areas of the Jammu region with the Kashmir Valley. (II) It crosses the Pir Panjal region.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

18

Regarding Dal Lake: (I) It is located in Srinagar. (II) It is connected with the city's tourism and traditional houseboat culture.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

19

Which statements about the Kishanganga river are correct? (I) It is known as the Neelum in Pakistan. (II) It joins the Jhelum river system.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

20

Regarding Jammu and Kashmir's agriculture: (I) Rice is cultivated in parts of the region. (II) Horticulture, including apple cultivation, is economically important.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

Section 2: Indian Polity and General Knowledge (Questions 21–40)

No.

Statement-based MCQ

Options

Answer

21

Consider the Fundamental Rights: (I) Article 14 guarantees equality before the law. (II) Article 21 protects life and personal liberty.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

22

Regarding constitutional amendments: (I) Article 368 deals with the constitutional amendment procedure. (II) Every constitutional amendment requires approval by all state legislatures.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

23

Consider the Parliament of India: (I) The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House. (II) The Lok Sabha is dissolved every five years without exception.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

24

Regarding a Money Bill: (I) It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. (II) The Rajya Sabha must return it within 14 days.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

25

Which statements about the President of India are correct? (I) The President is elected indirectly. (II) The President can be removed by impeachment for violation of the Constitution.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

26

Regarding Directive Principles: (I) They are generally non-justiciable. (II) They are fundamental in the governance of the country.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

27

Consider the Supreme Court: (I) It is the highest judicial authority in India. (II) Judicial review allows courts to examine the constitutionality of laws and actions.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

28

Regarding the Election Commission of India: (I) Article 324 concerns its constitutional authority. (II) It conducts elections to Parliament and state legislatures.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

29

Which statements about the Comptroller and Auditor General are correct? (I) The office is provided for under Article 148. (II) The CAG audits government receipts and expenditure within its constitutional and statutory mandate.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

30

Regarding the Finance Commission: (I) Article 280 provides for it. (II) It recommends the distribution of certain tax revenues between the Union and states.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

31

Consider the writ of habeas corpus: (I) It protects against unlawful detention. (II) It is available only against private individuals.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

32

Regarding the Preamble: (I) It declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic. (II) The words “socialist” and “secular” were added by the 42nd Amendment.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

33

Consider the Panchayati Raj system: (I) The 73rd Constitutional Amendment concerns Panchayats. (II) The 74th Amendment concerns municipalities.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

34

Regarding the Governor: (I) The Governor is appointed by the President. (II) The Governor normally holds office during the President's pleasure.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

35

Consider the emergency provisions: (I) Article 352 concerns a national emergency. (II) Article 356 concerns failure of constitutional machinery in a state.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

36

Regarding the Right to Information Act, 2005: (I) It promotes transparency in public authorities. (II) Every category of information must be disclosed without exception.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

37

Consider the Reserve Bank of India: (I) It is India's central bank. (II) Monetary policy is one of its important functions.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

38

Regarding inflation: (I) It refers to a sustained increase in the general price level. (II) It necessarily means that every individual product becomes more expensive at the same rate.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

39

Consider the United Nations: (I) It was established in 1945. (II) Its headquarters are in New York City.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

40

Regarding the Indian Constitution: (I) Fundamental Duties are listed in Article 51A. (II) Fundamental Duties were originally included in the Constitution in 1950.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

Section 3: General Science (Questions 41–55)

No.

Statement-based MCQ

Options

Answer

41

Regarding Newton's laws: (I) Action and reaction act on different bodies. (II) An object can maintain constant velocity when the net external force is zero.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

42

Consider electrical resistance: (I) Ohm's law is \(V=IR\) under constant physical conditions. (II) Resistance is measured in amperes.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

43

Regarding sound: (I) Sound requires a medium for propagation. (II) Sound travels faster in a vacuum than in air.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

44

Consider lenses: (I) A convex lens can converge parallel rays. (II) A concave lens is normally diverging for parallel incident rays.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

45

Regarding acids and bases: (I) A solution with pH below 7 is acidic at 25°C. (II) A solution with pH 7 is neutral at 25°C.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

46

Consider chemical changes: (I) Rusting involves oxidation of iron. (II) Rusting is purely a physical change.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

47

Regarding atomic structure: (I) Atomic number equals the number of protons. (II) Isotopes have the same atomic number but different mass numbers.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

48

Consider photosynthesis: (I) Chlorophyll helps absorb light energy. (II) Oxygen released during photosynthesis originates primarily from carbon dioxide.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

49

Regarding human blood: (I) Red blood cells contain haemoglobin. (II) Platelets play a role in blood clotting.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

50

Consider genetics: (I) DNA carries hereditary information. (II) Every mutation is necessarily harmful to an organism.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

51

Regarding vaccines: (I) They help the immune system develop protection against specific pathogens. (II) All vaccines contain live disease-causing pathogens.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

52

Consider ecology: (I) Energy generally flows through ecosystems in one direction. (II) Matter can cycle between organisms and the environment.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

53

Regarding ozone: (I) Stratospheric ozone absorbs much harmful ultraviolet radiation. (II) Ground-level ozone is always beneficial to human health.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

54

Consider heat transfer: (I) Conduction can occur through solids. (II) Thermal radiation requires a material medium.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

55

Regarding the human kidney: (I) Nephrons are functional units of the kidney. (II) Kidneys help regulate water and electrolyte balance.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

Section 4: Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude (Questions 56–70)

No.

Question

Options

Answer

56

Find the next number: 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ?

A. 46; B. 48; C. 50; D. 52

B

57

Find the missing term: 2, 6, 18, 54, ?

A. 108; B. 126; C. 162; D. 216

C

58

If POLICE is coded as QPMJDF by shifting each letter one place forward, how is CRIME coded?

A. DSJNF; B. DSKNF; C. BQHLD; D. DSJMF

A

59

A is the brother of B. B is the daughter of C. How is A related to C?

A. Brother; B. Son; C. Father; D. Cannot be determined

B

60

A person walks 8 km north, 6 km east and 8 km south. Where is the person relative to the starting point?

A. 6 km east; B. 6 km west; C. 8 km north; D. At the starting point

A

61

All inspectors are graduates. Some graduates are athletes. Which conclusion necessarily follows?

A. All inspectors are athletes; B. Some inspectors are athletes; C. All inspectors are graduates; D. No graduate is an inspector

C

62

A number increases by 20% and then decreases by 20%. What is the net change?

A. No change; B. 4% decrease; C. 4% increase; D. 2% decrease

B

63

The ratio of A to B is 3:5 and their sum is 64. Find B.

A. 24; B. 32; C. 40; D. 48

C

64

The average of five numbers is 24. If one number is removed, the average of the remaining four is 22. Find the removed number.

A. 28; B. 30; C. 32; D. 34

C

65

A sum earns simple interest of ₹1,200 at 8% per annum in 3 years. Find the principal.

A. ₹4,000; B. ₹5,000; C. ₹6,000; D. ₹7,500

B

66

A can complete a task in 12 days and B in 18 days. Working together, how long will they take?

A. 6 days; B. 7.2 days; C. 8 days; D. 9 days

B

67

A vehicle travels 180 km in 3 hours. What is its average speed?

A. 50 km/h; B. 55 km/h; C. 60 km/h; D. 65 km/h

C

68

If the marked price is ₹1,000 and the discount is 15%, what is the selling price?

A. ₹800; B. ₹825; C. ₹850; D. ₹875

C

69

A fair die is rolled once. What is the probability of obtaining a prime number?

A. 1/3; B. 1/2; C. 2/3; D. 5/6

B

70

If \(x+1/x=5\), find \(x^2+1/x^2\).

A. 21; B. 23; C. 25; D. 27

B

Section 5: General English (Questions 71–85)

No.

Question

Options

Answer

71

Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

A. Neither of the answers are correct; B. Neither of the answers is correct; C. Neither answers is correct; D. Neither of answers are correct

B

72

Choose the correct passive voice: “The officer examined the documents.”

A. The documents examined the officer; B. The documents were examined by the officer; C. The documents are examined by the officer yesterday; D. The officer was examined by documents

B

73

Choose the correct indirect speech: He said, “I am busy.”

A. He said that I am busy; B. He said that he was busy; C. He says that he was busy; D. He said he is busy yesterday

B

74

Select the correct preposition: “She is proficient ___ English.”

A. at; B. on; C. in; D. with

C

75

Choose the synonym of “Meticulous.”

A. Careless; B. Precise; C. Hasty; D. Indifferent

B

76

Choose the antonym of “Scarce.”

A. Rare; B. Limited; C. Abundant; D. Insufficient

C

77

Identify the error: “Each of the candidates have submitted the form.”

A. Each of; B. the candidates; C. have submitted; D. the form

C

78

Choose the correct article: “He is ___ honest officer.”

A. a; B. an; C. the; D. no article

B

79

Select the correct tense: “By next June, she ___ here for ten years.”

A. works; B. worked; C. will have worked; D. has worked

C

80

Choose the correct conditional sentence.

A. If I had known, I would have helped; B. If I knew, I will have helped yesterday; C. If I have known, I helped; D. If I had knew, I would help

A

81

What does “to call a spade a spade” mean?

A. To exaggerate; B. To speak frankly; C. To avoid work; D. To flatter someone

B

82

Choose the correctly spelled word.

A. Accomodation; B. Accommodation; C. Acommodation; D. Accommadation

B

83

Select the correct conjunction: “He was tired, ___ he continued working.”

A. because; B. yet; C. unless; D. since

B

84

Choose the correct comparative form: “This problem is ___ than the previous one.”

A. more difficult; B. most difficult; C. difficulter; D. more difficulter

A

85

Choose the correct sentence.

A. No sooner had he arrived than it started raining; B. No sooner he arrived when it started raining; C. No sooner had he arrived when it started raining; D. No sooner he had arrived than it started raining

A

Section 6: Computer Awareness (Questions 86–100)

No.

Statement-based MCQ

Options

Answer

86

Regarding computer memory: (I) RAM is generally volatile. (II) ROM is generally non-volatile.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

87

Which statements about an operating system are correct? (I) It manages system resources. (II) It provides an interface for users and applications.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

88

Regarding spreadsheets: (I) A formula in Excel generally begins with =. (II) SUM can add values in a specified range.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

89

Which statements about the internet are correct? (I) HTTPS uses encryption to protect data in transit. (II) HTTPS alone guarantees that a website is honest and safe.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

90

Regarding computer viruses: (I) A virus is a type of malware. (II) Antivirus software eliminates every threat with certainty.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

91

Which statements about phishing are correct? (I) It can involve fraudulent emails. (II) It may attempt to steal passwords or banking details.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

92

Regarding IP addresses: (I) IPv4 addresses use 32 bits. (II) IPv6 addresses use 128 bits.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

93

Which statements about databases are correct? (I) A primary key uniquely identifies a record in a table. (II) A foreign key can establish a relationship between tables.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

94

Regarding email: (I) BCC hides recipients from other ordinary recipients. (II) CC stands for carbon copy.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

95

Which statements about file extensions are correct? (I) .xlsx is associated with Excel workbooks. (II) .pptx is associated with PowerPoint presentations.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

96

Regarding keyboard shortcuts: (I) Ctrl+C commonly copies selected content. (II) Ctrl+Z commonly reverses the last action.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

97

Which statements about cloud computing are correct? (I) It can provide computing resources over a network. (II) Every cloud service must be hosted on the user's own computer.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

98

Regarding binary numbers: (I) The binary system uses digits 0 and 1. (II) The decimal number 10 is represented as 1010 in binary.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

C

99

Which statements about web browsers are correct? (I) Browsers retrieve and display web content. (II) A search engine and a web browser are exactly the same thing.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

100

Regarding cybersecurity: (I) Multi-factor authentication uses more than one category of verification factor. (II) Reusing one password across all accounts improves security.

A. I only; B. II only; C. Both; D. Neither

A

Important explanations for tricky questions

  • Q14: Article 370 was part of the original Constitution; the major constitutional changes relating to it occurred in August 2019.

  • Q22: Article 368 provides the amendment procedure. Only certain categories of amendments require ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.

  • Q31: Habeas corpus is a remedy against unlawful detention and is not limited exclusively to cases involving private individuals.

  • Q41: Newton's third-law forces act on different bodies, so they do not cancel each other on one body.

  • Q48: The oxygen released during photosynthesis primarily comes from water, not carbon dioxide.

  • Q62: If the initial value is 100, a 20% increase produces 120; reducing 120 by 20% gives 96, a net decrease of 4%.

  • Q65: Simple interest \(SI=PRT/100\). Therefore, \(P=1200\times100/(8\times3)=₹5,000\).

  • Q66: Combined work rate is \(1/12+1/18=5/36\) of the job per day. Time required is \(36/5=7.2\) days.

  • Q69: The prime outcomes on a fair die are 2, 3 and 5, giving probability \(3/6=1/2\).

  • Q89: HTTPS protects data in transit but does not, by itself, establish that the website's operator is trustworthy.

  • Q98: Decimal 10 equals binary 1010 because \(8+2=10\).

Preparation strategy for JKPSI candidates

A strong preparation plan should balance factual revision with conceptual practice. For Jammu and Kashmir GK, revise rivers, lakes, historical dynasties, geographical features, important institutions and constitutional developments. For Indian polity, focus on constitutional articles, parliamentary procedures, constitutional bodies, Fundamental Rights and emergency provisions.

In general science, understand the principles behind physics formulas, chemical reactions, biological processes and environmental concepts. In reasoning and mathematics, practise number series, syllogisms, percentages, ratios, averages, time and work, speed and distance, and probability. For English, concentrate on grammar, vocabulary, sentence correction, narration and voice. For computer awareness, revise memory, operating systems, networking, spreadsheets, email and cybersecurity.

Do not ignore negative marking if it applies to your notification. Practise eliminating clearly incorrect options, but avoid blind guessing when the penalty makes it disadvantageous.

Conclusion

These 100 challenging MCQs provide a broad revision exercise for candidates preparing for JKSSB JKPSI recruitment. Use the questions to identify weak areas, revisit the underlying concepts and build accuracy before attempting timed practice papers.

For more exam-focused notes, topic-wise MCQs, previous-year question practice and mock tests, visit JK Exam Library. Check the official JKSSB notification and syllabus before finalising your preparation strategy, because the prescribed subjects and marking scheme may vary between recruitment posts.

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