JKSSB Advanced Computer MCQs 2026: 100 Toughest Statement-Based Questions with Answers

Computer Science is one of the most important areas of preparation for competitive examinations conducted by the Jammu and Kashmir Services Selection Board (JKSSB). While basic computer awareness questions are relatively straightforward, candidates preparing for higher-level competitive examinations should also develop a deeper understanding of computer architecture, operating systems, database management, networking, cybersecurity and advanced MS Office concepts.

Many candidates prepare computer science by memorising definitions, full forms and shortcuts. However, this approach is not always sufficient when questions involve multiple statements, technical comparisons, matching concepts, chronological arrangements or practical applications.

For serious JKSSB aspirants, the objective should be to understand how different computer technologies work and how their concepts are interconnected.

This practice set has been prepared to help candidates move beyond ordinary computer awareness questions. It includes 100 advanced-level MCQs covering important topics of computer science, with special emphasis on statement-based, table-based, analytical and chronology-based questions.

Download Complete Study material for all exams jkssb with statement based tests include

Important Topics Covered in Advanced Computer MCQs

The following areas deserve particular attention during preparation:

1. Computer Architecture and Organisation

2. Operating Systems and Memory Management

3. Database Management Systems (DBMS)

4. Computer Networks and Communication Protocols

5. Cybersecurity and Cryptography

6. Programming Languages and Data Structures

7. Internet, Web Technologies and Cloud Computing

8. MS Office and Advanced Computer Applications

9. Data Representation and Number Systems

10. Computer Generations and Technological Developments

Candidates should attempt the questions without immediately checking the answers. This will help identify conceptual weaknesses and improve accuracy.

Section 1: Computer Architecture and Organisation

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding CPU architecture:

1. The ALU performs arithmetic and logical operations.

2. The Control Unit generates control signals for coordinating CPU operations.

3. CPU registers generally have slower access speed than secondary storage.

4. The Program Counter stores the address of the next instruction to be fetched.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (b)

Q2. Which of the following correctly represents the relationship between memory types and their characteristics?

Select the correct combination:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q3. Consider the following statements about cache memory:

1. Cache memory is generally built using SRAM.

2. Cache memory reduces the average time required to access frequently used data.

3. L1 cache is generally smaller and faster than L3 cache.

4. Cache memory is normally used as a permanent substitute for secondary storage.

Which statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q4. Arrange the following steps of a simplified instruction cycle in their correct order:

1. Execute

2. Fetch

3. Decode

4. Store or write back the result

(a) 2, 3, 1, 4
(b) 3, 2, 4, 1
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 2, 1, 3, 4

Answer: (a)

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding RISC and CISC architectures:

1. RISC generally emphasises a relatively small set of simpler instructions.

2. CISC architectures traditionally include more complex instructions.

3. RISC necessarily requires more memory than CISC in every implementation.

4. Pipelining can be used in both RISC and CISC processors.

Choose the correct answer:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q6. Which of the following statements about system buses are correct?

1. The address bus carries information identifying memory or I/O locations.

2. The data bus carries data between system components.

3. The control bus carries control and timing signals.

4. The width of the address bus determines the maximum directly addressable address space.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (c)

Q7. Match the following computer architecture components with their functions:

Select the correct code:

(a) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(c) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(d) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

Answer: (a)

Q8. A computer system has a 32-bit address bus and uses byte-addressable memory. What is its theoretical maximum directly addressable memory space?

(a) 2 GB
(b) 4 GB
(c) 8 GB
(d) 16 GB

Answer: (b)

Q9. Consider the following statements about pipelining:

1. Pipelining overlaps different stages of multiple instructions.

2. It can improve instruction throughput.

3. It necessarily reduces the latency of every individual instruction.

4. Data hazards and control hazards can affect pipeline performance.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q10. Which of the following correctly describes DMA (Direct Memory Access)?

(a) It allows peripherals to transfer data to or from memory with limited CPU intervention during the transfer.
(b) It permanently stores instructions inside the CPU.
(c) It converts high-level languages into machine code.
(d) It prevents all hardware interrupts.

Answer: (a)

Section 2: Operating Systems and Memory Management

Q11. Consider the following statements about operating systems:

1. A process is a program in execution.

2. A thread is the smallest unit of execution scheduled independently by many operating systems.

3. Threads belonging to the same process generally share its address space.

4. Every process must contain exactly one thread.

Which statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q12. Which of the following conditions are necessary for deadlock under the Coffman model?

1. Mutual exclusion

2. Hold and wait

3. No preemption

4. Circular wait

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (d)

Q13. Match the CPU scheduling algorithms with their characteristics:

(a) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Answer: (a)

Q14. Consider the following statements about virtual memory:

1. It provides processes with a virtual address space.

2. Demand paging loads pages when they are required.

3. A page fault always indicates a hardware failure.

4. Virtual memory can allow programs to use an address space larger than the available physical RAM.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q15. Which of the following statements about paging are correct?

1. Paging divides virtual memory into fixed-size pages.

2. Physical memory is divided into frames.

3. Page tables map virtual pages to physical frames.

4. Paging completely eliminates internal fragmentation.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q16. Arrange the following memory hierarchy levels from fastest to slowest in a typical computer system:

1. RAM

2. CPU Registers

3. Secondary Storage

4. Cache Memory

(a) 2, 4, 1, 3
(b) 4, 2, 3, 1
(c) 1, 2, 4, 3
(d) 2, 1, 3, 4

Answer: (a)

Q17. Which page replacement algorithm may exhibit Belady's anomaly?

(a) Optimal Page Replacement
(b) LRU
(c) FIFO
(d) None of these

Answer: (c)

Q18. Consider the following statements regarding file systems:

1. NTFS supports file permissions and access control lists.

2. FAT32 does not natively support individual file permissions like NTFS.

3. ext4 is commonly associated with Linux.

4. NTFS is a network routing protocol.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q19. In an operating system, a context switch primarily involves:

(a) Changing the physical size of RAM
(b) Saving and restoring execution state when switching between processes or threads
(c) Formatting the hard disk
(d) Translating source code into assembly language

Answer: (b)

Q20. Which of the following is the correct distinction between a kernel and a shell?

(a) Kernel manages core system resources, while a shell provides an interface for interacting with the operating system.
(b) Kernel is a spreadsheet application, while shell is a database.
(c) Both are identical components.
(d) Shell directly replaces the CPU.

Answer: (a)

Section 3: Database Management Systems

Q21. Consider the following statements about relational databases:

1. A primary key uniquely identifies each record in a table.

2. A foreign key establishes a relationship with a candidate key in another or the same table.

3. A primary key can contain duplicate values.

4. A candidate key is a minimal superkey.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q22. Match the ACID properties with their correct meanings:

(a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(d) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

Answer: (a)

Q23. Which of the following statements about database normalization are correct?

1. First Normal Form requires atomic values in each attribute under the traditional relational model.

2. Second Normal Form requires 1NF and no partial dependency of a non-prime attribute on a candidate key.

3. Third Normal Form removes every possible transitive dependency without exception.

4. BCNF requires every non-trivial functional determinant to be a superkey.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q24. Consider the following SQL query:

SELECT Department, COUNT(*) FROM Employee GROUP BY Department HAVING COUNT(*) > 5;

What does it return?

(a) Departments having more than five employees
(b) Employees receiving more than five salaries
(c) All departments irrespective of employee count
(d) Departments having exactly five employees

Answer: (a)

Q25. Which of the following statements regarding SQL commands are correct?

1. DDL includes CREATE and ALTER.

2. DML includes INSERT, UPDATE and DELETE.

3. DCL includes GRANT and REVOKE.

4. TCL includes COMMIT and ROLLBACK.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (d)

Q26. Match the SQL JOIN types with their functions:

(a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Answer: (a)

Q27. Consider the following statements about database indexes:

1. Indexes can improve data retrieval performance.

2. Indexes generally require additional storage.

3. Indexes can increase the cost of INSERT, UPDATE and DELETE operations.

4. Every database table must have exactly one index.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q28. Which of the following is an example of a non-relational database?

(a) PostgreSQL
(b) MySQL
(c) MongoDB
(d) Microsoft Access

Answer: (c)

Q29. In a database, a functional dependency X → Y indicates that:

(a) X uniquely determines Y
(b) Y always determines X
(c) X and Y must contain identical values
(d) X must be a foreign key

Answer: (a)

Q30. Which statement correctly distinguishes DELETE, TRUNCATE and DROP in SQL?

(a) DELETE removes selected rows, TRUNCATE removes all rows while retaining the table structure, and DROP removes the database object itself.
(b) DELETE removes the entire database, TRUNCATE changes column names, and DROP deletes selected rows.
(c) All three commands perform exactly the same operation.
(d) DROP only removes duplicate records.

Answer: (a)

Section 4: Computer Networking and Communication

Q31. Consider the following statements about the OSI model:

1. Physical layer deals with transmission of raw bits.

2. Data Link layer provides framing and MAC addressing.

3. Network layer is responsible for logical addressing and routing.

4. Transport layer provides end-to-end transport services.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (d)

Q32. Arrange the OSI layers in descending order, starting from the Application layer:

1. Network

2. Application

3. Transport

4. Data Link

5. Presentation

6. Physical

7. Session

(a) 2, 5, 7, 3, 1, 4, 6
(b) 2, 7, 5, 1, 3, 6, 4
(c) 6, 4, 1, 3, 7, 5, 2
(d) 2, 3, 5, 7, 4, 1, 6

Answer: (a)

Q33. Match the following protocols with their default port numbers:

(a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

Answer: (a)

Q34. Consider the following statements about TCP and UDP:

1. TCP is connection-oriented.

2. UDP is connectionless.

3. TCP provides reliable, ordered byte-stream delivery.

4. UDP guarantees delivery of every transmitted packet.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q35. Which of the following statements about IP addressing are correct?

1. IPv4 uses 32-bit addresses.

2. IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses.

3. IPv6 was designed with a substantially larger address space than IPv4.

4. IPv4 addresses are written as eight hexadecimal groups separated by colons.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q36. Which networking device primarily operates at the Network layer of the OSI model?

(a) Hub
(b) Repeater
(c) Router
(d) Basic Ethernet switch

Answer: (c)

Q37. Consider the following statements regarding DNS:

1. DNS translates domain names into corresponding resource records, including IP addresses.

2. DNS commonly uses port 53.

3. DNS always uses TCP and never UDP.

4. DNS can use both UDP and TCP.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q38. Match the network topologies with their characteristics:

(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Answer: (a)

Q39. Which of the following correctly describes the purpose of DHCP?

(a) Assigning IP configuration to network devices automatically
(b) Encrypting all network traffic
(c) Converting HTML into machine language
(d) Preventing all malware infections

Answer: (a)

Q40. A subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 corresponds to which CIDR prefix?

(a) /8
(b) /16
(c) /24
(d) /32

Answer: (c)

Section 5: Cybersecurity and Cryptography

Q41. Consider the following statements about cryptography:

1. Symmetric encryption uses the same shared secret key for encryption and decryption.

2. Asymmetric cryptography uses a public-private key pair.

3. A cryptographic hash function is designed to be reversible.

4. Digital signatures can provide authenticity and integrity.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q42. Which of the following correctly describes phishing?

(a) A technique used to deceive users into revealing sensitive information through fraudulent communications or websites.
(b) A process of compressing database files.
(c) A method of increasing RAM capacity.
(d) A technique for improving processor speed.

Answer: (a)

Q43. Match the following security threats with their descriptions:

(a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Answer: (a)

Q44. Consider the following statements regarding firewalls:

1. A firewall monitors and controls network traffic according to security rules.

2. A firewall can be implemented in hardware or software.

3. A firewall guarantees complete protection against all cyberattacks.

4. Packet-filtering firewalls can examine packet headers.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q45. Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the development of these cryptographic standards?

1. DES

2. AES

3. RSA

(a) RSA, DES, AES
(b) DES, RSA, AES
(c) AES, DES, RSA
(d) DES, AES, RSA

Answer: (a)

Q46. Which of the following statements about digital signatures are correct?

1. They commonly use the signer's private key.

2. Verification is performed using the corresponding public key.

3. They can help establish message integrity.

4. They necessarily encrypt the entire message for confidentiality.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q47. What is the primary difference between authentication and authorization?

(a) Authentication verifies identity, while authorization determines permitted access.
(b) Authentication encrypts files, while authorization deletes them.
(c) Both terms mean exactly the same thing.
(d) Authorization always occurs before identification.

Answer: (a)

Q48. Which of the following is an example of multi-factor authentication?

(a) Using two different passwords
(b) Using a password and a fingerprint
(c) Using the same PIN twice
(d) Using two usernames

Answer: (b)

Q49. Consider the following statements about malware:

1. A virus generally attaches itself to a host file or program.

2. A worm can spread independently without attaching itself to a host file.

3. A Trojan is necessarily self-replicating.

4. Rootkits may conceal malicious activity by hiding their presence.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q50. Which of the following security principles requires users to receive only the permissions necessary to perform their duties?

(a) Open Access Principle
(b) Principle of Least Privilege
(c) Universal Access Principle
(d) Maximum Privilege Principle

Answer: (b)

Section 6: Programming Languages and Data Structures

Q51. Consider the following statements about programming languages:

1. A compiler generally translates source code into another form before execution.

2. An interpreter generally executes program instructions through an interpretation process.

3. Machine language is directly executable by the processor.

4. Assembly language is completely independent of processor architecture.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q52. Match the data structures with their principles:

(a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Answer: (a)

Q53. What is the time complexity of binary search on a sorted array containing n elements?

(a) O(n)
(b) O(log n)
(c) O(n²)
(d) O(1) in every case

Answer: (b)

Q54. Consider the following statements about object-oriented programming:

1. Encapsulation combines data and related methods within a unit.

2. Inheritance allows a class to derive characteristics from another class.

3. Polymorphism allows the same interface or operation to exhibit different behaviours.

4. Abstraction requires exposing all implementation details.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q55. Which of the following sorting algorithms is generally stable in its standard implementation?

(a) Selection Sort
(b) Heap Sort
(c) Merge Sort
(d) Standard in-place Quick Sort

Answer: (c)

Q56. Arrange the following programming language developments in chronological order:

1. C

2. FORTRAN

3. Python

4. Java

(a) FORTRAN, C, Java, Python
(b) C, FORTRAN, Python, Java
(c) FORTRAN, Python, C, Java
(d) Java, C, FORTRAN, Python

Answer: (a)

Q57. Which of the following statements about recursion are correct?

1. A recursive function calls itself directly or indirectly.

2. A base case helps terminate recursion.

3. Every recursive algorithm necessarily executes in constant space.

4. Excessive recursion may cause stack overflow.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q58. In a stack, the operation used to insert an element is called:

(a) Dequeue
(b) Push
(c) Pop
(d) Traverse

Answer: (b)

Q59. Which data structure is most directly associated with breadth-first search (BFS)?

(a) Stack
(b) Queue
(c) Heap only
(d) Hash table only

Answer: (b)

Q60. Which of the following statements about pointers are correct?

1. A pointer stores a memory address.

2. Pointer arithmetic is commonly supported in languages such as C.

3. A null pointer represents a valid ordinary object address.

4. Incorrect pointer handling can lead to memory-access errors.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Section 7: Internet, Cloud Computing and Web Technologies

Q61. Consider the following statements about cloud computing:

1. IaaS provides virtualised computing infrastructure.

2. PaaS provides a platform for developing and deploying applications.

3. SaaS delivers software applications as a service.

4. SaaS always requires customers to manage the underlying operating system.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q62. Match the cloud deployment models with their descriptions:

(a) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
(b) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(d) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

Answer: (a)

Q63. Which of the following statements about HTTP are correct?

1. HTTP is an application-layer protocol.

2. HTTPS uses HTTP over a secure TLS connection.

3. HTTP is inherently a connection-oriented transport protocol.

4. HTTP is used for communication between web clients and servers.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q64. What is the primary function of an API?

(a) To provide a defined interface through which software components communicate
(b) To increase physical storage capacity
(c) To replace the operating system kernel
(d) To convert all data into binary manually

Answer: (a)

Q65. Which of the following correctly identifies the technologies used in web development?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q66. Arrange the following developments in chronological order:

1. World Wide Web proposed by Tim Berners-Lee

2. First widely recognised graphical web browser Mosaic

3. Introduction of HTML5 as a W3C Recommendation

4. Release of the first version of HTML specification

(a) 1, 4, 2, 3
(b) 4, 1, 2, 3
(c) 1, 2, 4, 3
(d) 2, 1, 3, 4

Answer: (a)

Q67. Which of the following statements regarding cookies are correct?

1. Cookies can store information associated with a website.

2. Session cookies are generally associated with a browsing session.

3. Cookies are always encrypted automatically.

4. Cookies may be used for authentication and personalisation.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q68. Which of the following is a characteristic of edge computing?

(a) Processing data closer to where it is generated
(b) Processing all information exclusively in distant central data centres
(c) Eliminating the need for network connectivity in every application
(d) Replacing all cloud services permanently

Answer: (a)

Q69. Which protocol is primarily associated with secure remote command-line access?

(a) FTP
(b) Telnet
(c) SSH
(d) POP3

Answer: (c)

Q70. What is the main difference between HTTP GET and POST methods?

(a) GET is generally used to retrieve a resource, whereas POST is commonly used to submit data for processing.
(b) GET always encrypts data, whereas POST never can.
(c) POST is used only for retrieving web pages.
(d) Both methods are identical in all respects.

Answer: (a)

Section 8: MS Office and Advanced Applications

Q71. Consider the following statements about Microsoft Excel:

1. VLOOKUP searches for a value in the first column of a table array.

2. HLOOKUP searches in the first row of a table array.

3. XLOOKUP can search in a specified lookup array and return a corresponding result.

4. VLOOKUP can directly search any column to the left of its lookup column using its standard column-index mechanism.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q72. Which Excel function counts cells meeting multiple specified criteria?

(a) COUNT
(b) COUNTIF
(c) COUNTIFS
(d) COUNTA

Answer: (c)

Q73. Consider the following statements about Excel references:

1. A1 is a relative reference.

2. $A$1 is an absolute reference.

3. $A1 fixes the column but not the row.

4. A$1 fixes the row but not the column.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (d)

Q74. Match the Microsoft Word features with their functions:

(a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Answer: (a)

Q75. Which of the following statements about Microsoft PowerPoint are correct?

1. Slide Master controls common design elements across slides.

2. Presenter View can show speaker notes to the presenter.

3. Animation effects apply only to transitions between slides.

4. Slide transitions control how one slide changes to another.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q76. Which of the following Excel functions returns the largest value among supplied arguments?

(a) MIN
(b) MAX
(c) COUNT
(d) AVERAGE

Answer: (b)

Q77. Consider the following statements regarding PivotTables:

1. PivotTables summarise and analyse large datasets.

2. They can aggregate data using functions such as SUM and COUNT.

3. They necessarily delete the original source data.

4. They can rearrange fields to view data from different perspectives.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q78. Which shortcut in Microsoft Excel opens the Format Cells dialog box in Windows?

(a) Ctrl + 1
(b) Ctrl + 2
(c) Ctrl + 5
(d) Ctrl + 9

Answer: (a)

Q79. Which of the following correctly describes the purpose of conditional formatting in Excel?

(a) Applying formatting automatically when specified conditions are met
(b) Converting a workbook into a database server
(c) Preventing all users from opening a workbook
(d) Automatically translating formulas into programming languages

Answer: (a)

Q80. In Microsoft Word, which feature allows a document to display different page-number formats in different sections?

(a) WordArt
(b) Section Breaks
(c) SmartArt
(d) AutoCorrect

Answer: (b)

Section 9: Number Systems, Data Representation and Storage

Q81. Convert the binary number (101101)₂ into decimal form.

(a) 43
(b) 45
(c) 47
(d) 49

Answer: (b)

Q82. Which of the following statements regarding number systems are correct?

1. Binary uses base 2.

2. Octal uses base 8.

3. Hexadecimal uses base 16.

4. Decimal uses base 12.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q83. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 11111111?

(a) FE
(b) FF
(c) EF
(d) F0

Answer: (b)

Q84. Which of the following statements about ASCII and Unicode are correct?

1. Standard ASCII uses 7 bits.

2. Unicode aims to represent characters from writing systems across the world.

3. UTF-8 is a variable-width Unicode encoding.

4. UTF-8 uses exactly 16 bits for every character.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q85. A byte consists of how many bits in standard modern computing terminology?

(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32

Answer: (b)

Q86. Which of the following correctly represents the relationship between storage units?

(a) 1 KB = 100 bytes
(b) 1 byte = 8 bits
(c) 1 bit = 8 bytes
(d) 1 MB = 100 KB under every measurement convention

Answer: (b)

Q87. Which memory is non-volatile?

(a) SRAM
(b) DRAM
(c) ROM
(d) CPU register

Answer: (c)

Q88. Consider the following statements about data compression:

1. Lossless compression allows exact reconstruction of the original data.

2. Lossy compression may permanently discard some information.

3. ZIP is commonly associated with lossless compression.

4. JPEG compression is generally lossless in its standard lossy mode.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q89. Which of the following is the correct binary representation of decimal 25?

(a) 11001
(b) 10101
(c) 11100
(d) 10011

Answer: (a)

Q90. In two's complement representation, the most significant bit of a signed binary integer generally indicates:

(a) The parity of the number
(b) The sign, with 0 conventionally indicating non-negative and 1 indicating negative
(c) The number of bytes
(d) The memory address

Answer: (b)

Section 10: Advanced Mixed Computer Science and Chronology

Q91. Arrange the following computer generations in chronological order:

1. Third Generation

2. First Generation

3. Fourth Generation

4. Second Generation

5. Fifth Generation

(a) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
(b) 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
(c) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
(d) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5

Answer: (a)

Q92. Match the computer generations with their principal technological developments:

(a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(d) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

Answer: (a)

Q93. Consider the following statements regarding open-source software:

1. Its source code is available under the terms of its licence.

2. Users may modify and redistribute it subject to applicable licence conditions.

3. Every open-source application must be completely free of cost.

4. Linux is an example of an open-source operating system kernel.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q94. Which of the following correctly describes virtualisation?

(a) Creating virtual versions of computing resources, such as machines, storage or networks
(b) Physically increasing the number of CPU cores
(c) Converting all applications into spreadsheets
(d) Removing the need for hardware completely

Answer: (a)

Q95. Match the following file extensions with their commonly associated formats:

(a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(b) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Answer: (a)

Q96. Which of the following statements about blockchain technology are correct?

1. Blockchain maintains records in linked blocks.

2. Cryptographic techniques help protect the integrity of records.

3. Every blockchain must be public and permissionless.

4. Distributed consensus mechanisms may be used to agree on ledger updates.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q97. Arrange the following internet-related developments in chronological order:

1. Introduction of the World Wide Web

2. Development of ARPANET

3. First widely recognised graphical browser Mosaic

4. Adoption of TCP/IP as the standard protocol suite on ARPANET

(a) 2, 4, 1, 3
(b) 1, 2, 4, 3
(c) 2, 1, 3, 4
(d) 4, 2, 3, 1

Answer: (a)

Q98. Which of the following statements regarding artificial intelligence are correct?

1. Machine learning is a subset of artificial intelligence.

2. Deep learning commonly uses multi-layer neural networks.

3. Every AI system necessarily uses deep learning.

4. Natural Language Processing deals with computational processing of human language.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q99. Consider the following statements about digital data security and backups:

1. A full backup copies all selected data.

2. An incremental backup generally copies data changed since the most recent backup.

3. A differential backup generally copies data changed since the last full backup.

4. A backup stored on the same physical device is always sufficient protection against hardware failure.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Q100. Consider the following statements about computer performance:

1. Increasing CPU clock frequency always increases overall system performance proportionally.

2. More CPU cores can improve performance for workloads that support parallel execution.

3. Cache misses can increase effective memory access time.

4. Disk I/O can become a performance bottleneck even when CPU utilisation is low.

Which of the statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All four

Answer: (b)

Question 1: Consider the following statements regarding CPU scheduling algorithms: Statement I: Round Robin (RR) scheduling degenerates to First-Come-First-Serve (FCFS) if the time quantum is extremely large. Statement II: Shortest Job First (SJF) is inherently a preemptive scheduling algorithm. Which of the following is correct? a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true Answer: c Solution: Statement I is correct because if the time slice is larger than the maximum process execution time, processes finish before they can be preempted, acting like FCFS. Statement II is false because SJF is non-preemptive by default; its preemptive version is called Shortest Remaining Time First (SRTF).

Question 2: Arrange the following memory types in chronological order of their invention/introduction (from oldest to newest):

1. Magnetic Core Memory

2. Delay Line Memory

3. Dynamic RAM (DRAM)

4. EEPROM a) 2, 1, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) 2, 1, 4, 3 d) 1, 3, 2, 4 Answer: a Solution: Delay Line Memory was used in the late 1940s (EDSAC). Magnetic Core Memory became dominant in the 1950s. DRAM was invented by Robert Dennard at IBM in 1967. EEPROM was developed by George Perlegos at Intel in 1978.

Question 3: Match the malware types in List I with their defining characteristics in List II: List I: P. Rootkit Q. Logic Bomb R. Ransomware S. Spyware List II:

1. Malicious code triggered by a specific event or date.

2. Encrypts user files and demands payment for the decryption key.

3. Secretly monitors user activity and transmits data to third parties.

4. Modifies the OS kernel to hide the presence of malicious processes. a) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 b) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 c) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3 d) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 Answer: a Solution: Rootkits hide deep in the OS (4). Logic bombs activate on conditions (1). Ransomware holds data hostage (2). Spyware steals information (3).

Question 4: Consider the following statements regarding IPv4 and IPv6: Statement I: IPv4 uses a 32-bit address space, allowing for approximately 4.3 billion addresses. Statement II: IPv6 uses a 128-bit address space and completely eliminates the need for Network Address Translation (NAT). Statement III: In IPv6, the header checksum field is removed to speed up packet processing. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) I and II only b) II and III only c) I and III only d) I, II, and III Answer: d Solution: All statements are correct. IPv4 is 32-bit. IPv6 is 128-bit and provides enough public IPs to make NAT obsolete. IPv6 also removes the header checksum because error checking is reliably handled by lower (Data Link) and upper (TCP/UDP) layers.

Question 5: Arrange the following communication standards in increasing order of their theoretical maximum data transfer speeds:

1. Bluetooth 5.0

2. USB 2.0

3. Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax)

4. Gigabit Ethernet a) 1, 2, 4, 3 b) 2, 1, 4, 3 c) 1, 4, 2, 3 d) 2, 4, 1, 3 Answer: a Solution: Bluetooth 5.0 max speed is ~2 Mbps. USB 2.0 max speed is 480 Mbps. Gigabit Ethernet max speed is 1,000 Mbps (1 Gbps). Wi-Fi 6 max theoretical speed is ~9.6 Gbps. Order is 1, 2, 4, 3.

Question 6: Consider the following statements about Database Normalization: Statement I: A relation is in 2NF if it is in 1NF and every non-prime attribute is fully functionally dependent on the primary key. Statement II: BCNF is a weaker form of 3NF where every determinant must be a candidate key. Which of the following is true? a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true Answer: c Solution: Statement I is the exact definition of 2NF (removal of partial dependencies). Statement II is false because BCNF (Boyce-Codd Normal Form) is a stronger (stricter) form of 3NF, not a weaker one.

Question 7: Which of the following combinations of OSI Model layers and their corresponding hardware devices is strictly correct? Statement I: Layer 2 (Data Link) - Switch, Bridge Statement II: Layer 3 (Network) - Router, Hub Statement III: Layer 1 (Physical) - Repeater, Modem a) I and II only b) I and III only c) II and III only d) I, II, and III Answer: b Solution: Statement I is correct (Switches and Bridges operate at MAC addresses). Statement III is correct (Repeaters and Modems deal with raw bits). Statement II is incorrect because while Routers operate at Layer 3, Hubs operate at Layer 1 (Physical).

Question 8: Arrange the following Microsoft Windows operating systems in the chronological order of their official release dates:

1. Windows Vista

2. Windows XP

3. Windows 2000

4. Windows 7 a) 3, 2, 1, 4 b) 2, 3, 1, 4 c) 3, 1, 2, 4 d) 2, 1, 3, 4 Answer: a Solution: Windows 2000 (Feb 2000), Windows XP (Oct 2001), Windows Vista (Jan 2007), Windows 7 (Oct 2009).

Question 9: Consider the following statements regarding MS Excel functionalities: Statement I: The VLOOKUP function can search for values in any column of a given range and return a value to the left of the lookup column. Statement II: The COUNTIF function is used to count the number of cells that meet a single specific criterion. Which of the following is true? a) Statement I is correct b) Statement II is correct c) Both are correct d) Neither is correct Answer: b Solution: Statement I is false. VLOOKUP can only search in the first (leftmost) column of a range and return values to the right. (To look left, INDEX/MATCH or XLOOKUP is used). Statement II is the exact definition of COUNTIF.

Question 10: Match the following network topologies with their distinct disadvantages: List I: P. Star Q. Ring R. Mesh S. Bus List II:

1. A single cable failure brings down the entire network.

2. Central hub failure paralyzes all communications.

3. Highest cabling cost and complex configuration.

4. A break in the closed-loop cable causes a complete network failure. a) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1 b) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 d) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 Answer: a Solution: Star topology depends on a central hub (2). Ring network fails if the loop breaks (4). Mesh is extremely expensive due to n(n-1)/2 cables (3). Bus topology relies on a single backbone cable (1).

Question 11: Consider the following statements regarding cache memory mapping: Statement I: Direct mapping maps each block of main memory into only one possible cache line. Statement II: Fully associative mapping allows a main memory block to be loaded into any line of the cache. Statement III: Set-associative mapping is a compromise that exhibits the drawbacks of both direct and fully associative mapping without their benefits. Which is correct? a) I and II only b) II and III only c) I and III only d) All are correct Answer: a Solution: Statements I and II are correct definitions. Statement III is false because set-associative mapping combines the benefits of both (speed of direct and flexibility of associative), not just the drawbacks.

Question 12: Arrange the following programming languages chronologically based on the year they were first released:

1. Java

2. C

3. Python

4. Fortran a) 4, 2, 1, 3 b) 4, 2, 3, 1 c) 2, 4, 3, 1 d) 4, 3, 2, 1 Answer: b Solution: Fortran (1957), C (1972), Python (1991), Java (1995).

Question 13: Consider the following statements about encryption algorithms: Statement I: RSA is a symmetric-key encryption algorithm. Statement II: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is an asymmetric-key encryption algorithm. Which of the following is true? a) Statement I is correct b) Statement II is correct c) Both are correct d) Neither is correct Answer: d Solution: Both are false. RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman) is an asymmetric-key algorithm (uses public/private keys). AES is a symmetric-key algorithm (uses the same key for encryption and decryption).

Question 14: Match the following UNIX/Linux commands with their functions: List I: P. chmod Q. grep R. awk S. tar List II:

1. Pattern scanning and text processing language.

2. Changes file access permissions.

3. Archives multiple files into a single file.

4. Searches plain-text data sets for lines that match a regular expression. a) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 b) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 c) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 d) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 Answer: a Solution: chmod changes permissions (2). grep searches via regex (4). awk is a text processing tool (1). tar creates archives (3).

Question 15: Consider the following statements regarding computer ports: Statement I: Port 80 is strictly dedicated to secure web traffic (HTTPS). Statement II: Port 25 is primarily used for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). Statement III: Port 21 is used for File Transfer Protocol (FTP) control traffic. Which statements are correct? a) I and II only b) II and III only c) I and III only d) All are correct Answer: b Solution: Statement I is false; Port 80 is used for HTTP (unsecured), while Port 443 is used for HTTPS (secured). Statements II and III are standard assignments for SMTP and FTP respectively.

Question 16: Arrange the generation of computer components in chronological order:

1. Integrated Circuits (ICs)

2. Vacuum Tubes

3. Microprocessors

4. Transistors a) 2, 4, 1, 3 b) 2, 1, 4, 3 c) 4, 2, 1, 3 d) 2, 4, 3, 1 Answer: a Solution: 1st Gen: Vacuum Tubes. 2nd Gen: Transistors. 3rd Gen: Integrated Circuits. 4th Gen: Microprocessors.

Question 17: Consider the following statements on Cyber Security: Statement I: Phishing is a social engineering attack used to steal user data. Statement II: A DDOS attack aims to compromise data integrity by injecting malicious SQL code. Which is true? a) Only Statement I b) Only Statement II c) Both are true d) Neither is true Answer: a Solution: Statement I is true. Statement II is false; a DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack aims to compromise availability by overwhelming servers with traffic, not integrity via SQL code (that would be SQL injection).

Question 18: Match the memory terminologies: List I: P. Seek Time Q. Latency Time R. Transfer Rate List II:

1. Time taken for the desired sector to rotate under the read/write head.

2. Rate at which data is moved from disk to memory.

3. Time taken to position the read/write head over the correct track. a) P-3, Q-1, R-2 b) P-1, Q-3, R-2 c) P-3, Q-2, R-1 d) P-2, Q-1, R-3 Answer: a Solution: Seek time is track positioning (3). Latency is rotational delay (1). Transfer rate is data movement speed (2).

Question 19: Regarding MS Word features: Statement I: 'Mail Merge' requires at least two files: a main document and a data source. Statement II: The 'Track Changes' feature is found under the 'Review' tab. a) Only I is correct b) Only II is correct c) Both I and II are correct d) Neither is correct Answer: c Solution: Mail Merge fundamentally links a template (main document) with a database/list (data source). Track Changes is always housed in the Review tab. Both statements are accurate.

Question 20: Arrange these units of data logically from smallest to largest capacity:

1. Petabyte

2. Terabyte

3. Exabyte

4. Zettabyte a) 2, 1, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) 2, 3, 1, 4 d) 1, 3, 2, 4 Answer: a Solution: 1 Terabyte = 1024 Gigabytes. 1 Petabyte = 1024 Terabytes. 1 Exabyte = 1024 Petabytes. 1 Zettabyte = 1024 Exabytes. The order is TB (2), PB (1), EB (3), ZB (4).

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