JKSSB Toughest Statement-Based MCQs 2026 – 200 Advanced Questions for JKSSB Exams

Statement-based questions are particularly challenging because all the statements may appear correct at first glance. However, a small conceptual difference can make an entire option incorrect.

In this specially prepared practice set, we have included 200 advanced and challenging statement-based MCQs covering:

1. Indian Constitution and Polity

2. Indian History and National Movement

3. Indian and World Geography

4. Jammu and Kashmir General Knowledge

5. General Science – Physics, Chemistry and Biology

6. Computer Science and Information Technology

7. Indian Economy

8. Environment and Ecology

9. Science and Technology

10. Mixed General Knowledge and Conceptual Questions

Every question includes four options, the correct answer and a conceptual explanation. The questions are designed to test understanding rather than simple memorisation.

Difficulty level: Advanced to Very Difficult like Currently jkssb asking in exams

Download Complete study with statement based Testseries included in all courses

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Section 1: Indian Constitution and Polity (Questions 1–20)

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution:

1. The Preamble is a part of the Constitution.

2. The Preamble can be directly enforced in a court of law.

3. The Preamble has been amended only once.

4. The words Socialist, Secular and Integrity were inserted through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: B. 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court recognised the Preamble as part of the Constitution. However, it is not independently enforceable in court. It has been amended only once, by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.

Q2. Regarding Fundamental Rights, consider the following statements:

1. Article 14 is available to both citizens and foreigners.

2. Article 19 is available to every person residing in India.

3. Article 21 protects life and personal liberty.

4. Article 32 allows individuals to approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: Article 14 and Article 21 are available to all persons, including foreigners. Article 19 rights are exclusively available to citizens. Article 32 provides the constitutional remedy for enforcing Fundamental Rights.

Q3. Consider the following statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. They are borrowed from the Irish Constitution.

2. They are directly enforceable by courts.

3. They aim to establish social and economic democracy.

4. They are classified into Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal-Intellectual principles.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning courts cannot directly enforce them. Article 37 states that they are fundamental in the governance of the country.

Q4. With reference to the President of India, consider the following statements:

1. The President is elected through proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.

2. Nominated members of Parliament participate in the presidential election.

3. Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry participate in the election.

4. The President can be removed through impeachment for violation of the Constitution.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: Nominated MPs do not participate in the presidential election. Elected MPs and elected MLAs of states, Delhi and Puducherry form the electoral college. Impeachment is governed by Article 61.

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding a Money Bill:

1. It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

2. The Rajya Sabha can amend a Money Bill independently.

3. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha certifies whether a Bill is a Money Bill.

4. The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill within 14 days.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: The Rajya Sabha cannot amend a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject. Under Article 109, it must return the Bill within 14 days.

Q6. Regarding constitutional amendments, consider the following statements:

1. Every constitutional amendment requires ratification by at least half of the states.

2. Certain amendments can be passed by a special majority of Parliament alone.

3. The President is constitutionally required to give assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill duly passed under Article 368.

4. The basic structure of the Constitution can be destroyed by Parliament through an amendment.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Only amendments affecting specified federal provisions require ratification by at least half of the states. Parliament cannot destroy the Constitution's basic structure, as established in Kesavananda Bharati.

Q7. Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court of India:

1. The Supreme Court is a court of record.

2. It has the power to punish for contempt of itself.

3. Its original jurisdiction includes disputes between the Union and states.

4. Its advisory opinion under Article 143 is binding on the President.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Article 129 declares the Supreme Court a court of record. It has contempt powers and original federal jurisdiction under Article 131. Advisory opinions under Article 143 are not binding on the President.

Q8. Regarding the Governor of a state, consider the following statements:

1. The Governor is appointed by the President.

2. The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.

3. The Governor must necessarily be a resident of the state concerned.

4. The Governor can reserve certain Bills for the consideration of the President.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Article 155 provides for appointment by the President. The Constitution does not require the Governor to be a resident of the concerned state. Article 200 provides for reserving certain Bills for presidential consideration.

Q9. Consider the following statements about Fundamental Duties:

1. They were originally included in the Constitution in 1950.

2. They were added through the 42nd Amendment Act.

3. They are contained in Part IVA.

4. The 86th Amendment added the duty of parents or guardians regarding children's education.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: Fundamental Duties were added in 1976 following the Swaran Singh Committee recommendations. Article 51A contains them. The 86th Amendment added clause (k) concerning education for children aged 6–14 years.

Q10. Regarding parliamentary privileges, consider the following statements:

1. Article 105 deals with parliamentary privileges.

2. Members enjoy freedom of speech in Parliament subject to constitutional provisions and parliamentary rules.

3. Parliamentary privileges are completely unlimited.

4. Courts cannot inquire into the validity of parliamentary proceedings merely on the ground of procedural irregularity.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Article 105 protects parliamentary privileges and freedom of speech within constitutional limits. Privileges are not unlimited. Article 122 protects proceedings from judicial challenge on grounds of mere procedural irregularity.

Q11. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India:

1. It is a constitutional body.

2. Article 324 deals with its powers and functions.

3. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed in the same manner as a Supreme Court judge.

4. All other Election Commissioners enjoy exactly the same removal protection as the Chief Election Commissioner.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Chief Election Commissioner has removal protection similar to that of a Supreme Court judge. Other Election Commissioners cannot be removed except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.

Q12. With reference to the Finance Commission, consider the following statements:

1. It is constituted under Article 280.

2. It is normally constituted every five years or earlier.

3. It determines the exact tax rates imposed by the Union Government.

4. It recommends the distribution of tax proceeds between the Union and states.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: The Finance Commission recommends tax devolution and grants-in-aid. It does not determine the Union Government's tax rates.

Q13. Regarding emergency provisions, consider the following statements:

1. National Emergency is provided under Article 352.

2. President's Rule is provided under Article 356.

3. Financial Emergency is provided under Article 360.

4. A Financial Emergency has been proclaimed in India at least once.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: All three emergency provisions are correctly identified. However, India has never proclaimed a Financial Emergency under Article 360.

Q14. Consider the following statements about the Rajya Sabha:

1. It is a permanent House.

2. One-third of its members retire every two years.

3. It can be dissolved by the President during a National Emergency.

4. Its maximum constitutional strength is 250 members.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution. Its maximum strength is 250, comprising up to 238 representatives of states and union territories and 12 nominated members.

Q15. Regarding Panchayati Raj institutions, consider the following statements:

1. The 73rd Amendment added Part IX to the Constitution.

2. The Eleventh Schedule contains 29 subjects.

3. Gram Sabha is a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village.

4. The Constitution makes a uniform three-tier Panchayati Raj structure compulsory in every state without exception.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: States with a population not exceeding 20 lakh are not required to constitute Panchayats at the intermediate level. Therefore, the three-tier structure is not universally compulsory.

Q16. Consider the following statements about the writ jurisdiction of Indian courts:

1. Habeas Corpus protects against unlawful detention.

2. Mandamus can be issued to enforce a public duty.

3. Prohibition is generally issued to prevent a lower court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction.

4. Quo Warranto challenges the legal authority of a person holding a public office.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: D. All four

Explanation: All four descriptions correctly explain the constitutional writs. Certiorari is another important writ used to quash certain orders of inferior courts or tribunals.

Q17. Regarding the Anti-Defection Law, consider the following statements:

1. It is contained in the Tenth Schedule.

2. It was introduced through the 52nd Amendment.

3. A merger exemption requires at least two-thirds of the members of the legislature party concerned.

4. The presiding officer's decision is completely beyond judicial review.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The 52nd Amendment, 1985 introduced the Anti-Defection Law. The merger exemption requires at least two-thirds of the legislature party. In the Kihoto Hollohan case, judicial review of the presiding officer's decision was recognised.

Q18. Consider the following statements about the Comptroller and Auditor General of India:

1. The CAG is appointed by the President.

2. The CAG can be removed in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Supreme Court judge.

3. The CAG audits the accounts of the Union and states.

4. The CAG holds office during the pleasure of the President.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The CAG enjoys constitutional security of tenure. The CAG is not removable at the pleasure of the President; removal follows the special procedure applicable to a Supreme Court judge.

Q19. With reference to the constitutional amendment process, consider the following statements:

1. Parliament can amend Fundamental Rights.

2. Parliament can amend any provision of the Constitution subject to the basic structure limitation.

3. State legislatures can independently initiate a constitutional amendment Bill.

4. A constitutional amendment Bill requires prior presidential recommendation.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1 and 2 only

Explanation: A constitutional amendment Bill can be introduced only in either House of Parliament, not in state legislatures. Prior presidential recommendation is not required. The basic structure limitation applies.

Q20. Consider the following statements about constitutional bodies:

1. The Union Public Service Commission is established under Article 315.

2. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is provided under Article 338.

3. The GST Council is provided under Article 279A.

4. NITI Aayog is a constitutional body.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: UPSC, NCSC and GST Council have constitutional status. NITI Aayog is an executive body established through a government resolution in 2015.

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Section 2: Indian History and National Movement (Questions 21–40)

Q21. Consider the following statements regarding the Harappan Civilisation:

1. The Great Bath was discovered at Mohenjo-daro.

2. Lothal is associated with a dockyard-like structure.

3. Harappan script has been conclusively deciphered.

4. The civilisation had extensive trade contacts with Mesopotamia.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: The Harappan script remains undeciphered. Archaeological evidence supports urban planning, maritime and inland trade, and commercial links with Mesopotamia.

Q22. Regarding Vedic literature, consider the following statements:

1. The Rigveda is the oldest Veda.

2. The Samaveda is primarily associated with melodies and chants.

3. The Yajurveda contains sacrificial formulae.

4. The Atharvaveda deals exclusively with royal administration.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Atharvaveda contains hymns, charms, spells and material relating to everyday life, healing and rituals. It is not exclusively concerned with royal administration.

Q23. Consider the following statements about Buddhism:

1. Gautama Buddha delivered his first sermon at Sarnath.

2. The First Buddhist Council was held at Rajagriha.

3. The Fourth Buddhist Council under Kanishka is traditionally associated with Kashmir.

4. The Buddhist doctrine of Anatta accepts the existence of an eternal, unchanging individual soul.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Anatta means non-self. Buddhism rejects the idea of a permanent, unchanging self or soul.

Q24. Regarding Jainism, consider the following statements:

1. Mahavira was the 24th Tirthankara.

2. Rishabhanatha is traditionally regarded as the first Tirthankara.

3. Jainism recognises the principles of Ahimsa and Aparigraha.

4. Mahavira was the founder of Jainism in the sense that no Tirthankaras preceded him.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Jain tradition recognises 24 Tirthankaras. Mahavira was the 24th, not the first. Ahimsa and Aparigraha are central Jain principles.

Q25. Consider the following statements regarding Ashoka:

1. The Kalinga War is associated with his transformation towards Dhamma.

2. Most of his inscriptions were composed in Sanskrit.

3. The Brahmi script was used in many of his inscriptions.

4. Ashoka's inscriptions provide important evidence about Mauryan administration.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: Most Ashokan inscriptions used Prakrit languages and Brahmi script, although Kharosthi and other scripts or languages were also used in particular regions.

Q26. Regarding the Gupta period, consider the following statements:

1. Samudragupta's achievements are described in the Allahabad Pillar inscription.

2. The inscription was composed by Harisena.

3. Chandragupta II is associated with the title Vikramaditya.

4. The Gupta period witnessed no development in mathematics or astronomy.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Gupta period witnessed significant advances in mathematics, astronomy, literature and art. Aryabhata was among its notable scholars.

Q27. Consider the following statements about the Delhi Sultanate:

1. Qutb-ud-din Aibak founded the Mamluk or Slave dynasty.

2. Iltutmish introduced the silver Tanka and copper Jital.

3. Alauddin Khalji introduced extensive market-control measures.

4. Muhammad bin Tughlaq's token currency experiment was an unqualified success.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Muhammad bin Tughlaq's token currency experiment faced serious difficulties, particularly widespread counterfeiting, and was withdrawn.

Q28. Regarding the Mughal Empire, consider the following statements:

1. Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi in the First Battle of Panipat.

2. Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system.

3. Jahangir issued a famous chain of justice.

4. Aurangzeb abolished the jizya permanently throughout the Mughal Empire.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Aurangzeb reimposed jizya in 1679. It had previously been abolished by Akbar.

Q29. Consider the following statements about Bhakti and Sufi movements:

1. Kabir criticised religious orthodoxy and ritualism.

2. Guru Nanak emphasised devotion, equality and honest living.

3. Chishti Sufis generally emphasised spiritual love and service.

4. All Bhakti saints rejected the use of regional languages.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Many Bhakti saints actively used regional languages to communicate spiritual ideas to ordinary people.

Q30. Regarding the Revolt of 1857, consider the following statements:

1. The immediate military trigger was related to the Enfield rifle cartridges.

2. Bahadur Shah Zafar was proclaimed the symbolic emperor by the rebels.

3. Rani Lakshmibai led the resistance in Jhansi.

4. The revolt originated exclusively in southern India.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The revolt began at Meerut in northern India in May 1857 and spread to several centres in north and central India.

Q31. Consider the following statements about the Indian National Congress:

1. It was established in 1885.

2. A.O. Hume played an important role in its formation.

3. W.C. Bonnerjee was its first president.

4. Its first session was held in Calcutta.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The first session was held in Bombay in December 1885, not Calcutta.

Q32. Regarding the Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:

1. It emerged in response to the Partition of Bengal in 1905.

2. It encouraged the boycott of foreign goods.

3. It promoted indigenous industries and products.

4. It began only after the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Swadeshi Movement emerged in 1905, decades before the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1920.

Q33. Consider the following statements regarding the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909:

1. They introduced separate electorates for Muslims.

2. They increased the size of legislative councils.

3. They introduced responsible government at the provincial level.

4. Satyendra Prasanna Sinha became the first Indian member of the Viceroy's Executive Council.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: The reforms introduced separate electorates and enlarged legislative councils. They did not establish responsible government at the provincial level.

Q34. Regarding the Government of India Act, 1919, consider the following statements:

1. It introduced dyarchy in the provinces.

2. It established a bicameral legislature at the Centre.

3. It introduced provincial autonomy.

4. It provided for a Public Service Commission.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Provincial autonomy was introduced by the Government of India Act, 1935. The 1919 Act introduced dyarchy in the provinces.

Q35. Consider the following statements about the Non-Cooperation Movement:

1. It was launched in 1920.

2. The Khilafat issue was one of its associated causes.

3. It was withdrawn following the Chauri Chaura incident.

4. Gandhi launched it immediately after the Cabinet Mission Plan.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The movement was withdrawn in February 1922 following violence at Chauri Chaura. The Cabinet Mission came in 1946.

Q36. Regarding the Civil Disobedience Movement, consider the following statements:

1. It began with the Dandi March in 1930.

2. Gandhi broke the salt law at Dandi.

3. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed in 1931.

4. The movement began before the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Non-Cooperation Movement began in 1920, whereas the Civil Disobedience Movement began in 1930.

Q37. Consider the following statements about the Quit India Movement:

1. It was launched in August 1942.

2. The slogan Do or Die was associated with it.

3. The Congress leadership was arrested shortly after the launch.

4. The movement was launched after India became independent.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Quit India Movement was launched during the Second World War, five years before independence.

Q38. Regarding the Cabinet Mission Plan, consider the following statements:

1. It came to India in 1946.

2. It proposed a Union dealing with defence, foreign affairs and communications.

3. It accepted the demand for a fully sovereign Pakistan.

4. It proposed a Constituent Assembly.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: The Cabinet Mission rejected the demand for a separate sovereign Pakistan and proposed a constitutional arrangement with a limited Union.

Q39. Consider the following statements about the Indian National Army (INA):

1. Mohan Singh played a role in its initial formation.

2. Subhas Chandra Bose reorganised and led it.

3. The INA trials were held at the Red Fort.

4. The INA was established after India's independence in 1947.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The INA emerged during the Second World War. Bose took leadership of its reorganisation in 1943. The famous trials began in 1945.

Q40. Regarding the making of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. The Constituent Assembly first met on 9 December 1946.

2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was its permanent President.

3. The Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949.

4. The Constitution came into force on 15 August 1947.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950. The date was selected to commemorate the Purna Swaraj declaration of 1930.

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Section 3: Indian and World Geography (Questions 41–60)

Q41. Consider the following statements about the Indian monsoon:

1. Differential heating of land and sea contributes to monsoon circulation.

2. The ITCZ shifts northwards during the Indian summer.

3. The Tibetan Plateau influences the summer monsoon circulation.

4. The Indian monsoon is caused exclusively by local convection over the Indian subcontinent.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The monsoon is a complex circulation system influenced by land-sea heating contrasts, ITCZ movement, upper-air circulation, the Tibetan Plateau and ocean-atmosphere interactions.

Q42. Regarding Indian rivers, consider the following statements:

1. The Narmada flows westwards through a rift valley.

2. The Tapi also flows westwards.

3. The Godavari is the longest peninsular river.

4. The Mahanadi drains into the Arabian Sea.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Mahanadi flows eastwards and drains into the Bay of Bengal.

Q43. Consider the following statements about Himalayan rivers:

1. The Indus originates near the Lake Mansarovar region.

2. The Ganga is formed at Devprayag by the confluence of Bhagirathi and Alaknanda.

3. The Brahmaputra is known as Tsangpo in Tibet.

4. The Brahmaputra enters India through Himachal Pradesh.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

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Explanation: The Brahmaputra enters India through Arunachal Pradesh, where it is initially known as the Siang or Dihang.

Q44. Regarding Indian soils, consider the following statements:

1. Black soil has high moisture-retention capacity.

2. Laterite soil develops under conditions of intense leaching.

3. Alluvial soil is generally rich in nitrogen.

4. Red soil derives its colour mainly from iron oxides.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Alluvial soil is generally deficient in nitrogen and humus, although its fertility varies by region and composition.

Q45. Consider the following statements regarding Indian physiography:

1. The Western Ghats are generally higher than the Eastern Ghats.

2. The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous.

3. Anamudi is the highest peak of the Western Ghats.

4. The Aravalli Range is one of the youngest fold mountain systems in India.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Aravallis are among the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, not the youngest.

Q46. Regarding ocean currents, consider the following statements:

1. The Gulf Stream is a warm ocean current.

2. The Labrador Current is cold.

3. Warm currents generally increase the temperature of adjacent coastal regions.

4. The Canary Current is a warm current.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Canary Current is a cold current flowing along the north-western coast of Africa.

Q47. Consider the following statements about atmospheric layers:

1. Most weather phenomena occur in the troposphere.

2. The ozone layer is concentrated mainly in the stratosphere.

3. Temperature generally increases with altitude in the stratosphere.

4. The mesosphere is the hottest atmospheric layer.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The mesosphere is characterised by decreasing temperature with altitude and is the coldest major atmospheric layer. The thermosphere reaches extremely high temperatures.

Q48. Regarding earthquakes, consider the following statements:

1. The focus is the point inside the Earth where an earthquake originates.

2. The epicentre lies vertically above the focus on the surface.

3. P-waves can travel through solids and liquids.

4. S-waves can travel through liquids.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: S-waves are shear waves and cannot propagate through liquids. This property helps scientists infer the structure of Earth's interior.

Q49. Consider the following statements regarding latitude and longitude:

1. The Equator is a great circle.

2. All meridians meet at the poles.

3. The distance between two longitudes remains constant at all latitudes.

4. The Tropic of Cancer lies at approximately 23.5° north latitude.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: The east-west distance between meridians decreases towards the poles and becomes zero at the poles.

Q50. Regarding deserts, consider the following statements:

1. The Sahara is the world's largest hot desert.

2. The Antarctic Desert is the world's largest desert overall.

3. The Atacama is known for extreme aridity.

4. All deserts are characterised by high temperatures throughout the year.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Deserts are defined primarily by low precipitation, not high temperatures. Polar deserts are extremely cold.

Q51. Consider the following statements about Indian agriculture:

1. Kharif crops are generally sown with the onset of the monsoon.

2. Rabi crops are generally harvested during spring.

3. Zaid crops are cultivated between Rabi and Kharif seasons.

4. Wheat is primarily a Kharif crop in India.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Wheat is primarily a Rabi crop. Rice, maize and cotton are important Kharif crops.

Q52. Regarding glaciers, consider the following statements:

1. A glacier is a mass of ice formed through accumulation and compaction of snow.

2. Glaciers can shape U-shaped valleys.

3. Moraines consist of materials deposited by glaciers.

4. Glacial erosion is exclusively caused by melting water.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Glacial erosion occurs through processes such as abrasion and plucking, not exclusively through meltwater.

Q53. Consider the following statements about El Niño:

1. It involves abnormal warming of the central and eastern equatorial Pacific.

2. It is associated with changes in atmospheric circulation.

3. It can influence the Indian summer monsoon.

4. It invariably causes drought throughout every part of India.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: El Niño can weaken the Indian monsoon statistically, but its effects are not uniform or inevitable. Other oceanic and atmospheric factors also matter.

Q54. Regarding plate tectonics, consider the following statements:

1. Convergent boundaries can produce mountain building.

2. Divergent boundaries are associated with the formation of new crust.

3. Transform boundaries involve lateral movement of plates.

4. The Himalayas formed due to the divergence of the Indian and Eurasian plates.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Himalayas formed due to the convergence and collision of the Indian and Eurasian plates.

Q55. Consider the following statements about population geography:

1. Population density is calculated as population per unit area.

2. A population pyramid can indicate age and sex composition.

3. Demographic transition describes changes in birth and death rates with development.

4. Population growth is always negative when death rates decline.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Declining death rates can initially increase population growth if birth rates remain high.

Q56. Regarding the world's major straits, consider the following statements:

1. The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman.

2. The Strait of Malacca lies between the Malay Peninsula and Sumatra.

3. The Bering Strait separates Asia and North America.

4. The Strait of Gibraltar connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Strait of Gibraltar connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Mediterranean Sea. The Red Sea connects to the Gulf of Aden through Bab-el-Mandeb.

Q57. Consider the following statements about Indian ports:

1. Kandla is situated in Gujarat.

2. Visakhapatnam is a major port on the eastern coast.

3. Mumbai is a natural harbour.

4. Paradip Port is located in Kerala.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Paradip Port is located in Odisha, not Kerala.

Q58. Regarding cyclones, consider the following statements:

1. Tropical cyclones require sufficiently warm ocean water.

2. The Coriolis force contributes to their rotation.

3. Tropical cyclones generally do not form exactly at the Equator.

4. The eye of a mature cyclone generally has the strongest winds.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The strongest winds are generally found in the eyewall, surrounding the relatively calm eye.

Q59. Consider the following statements about India's geographical position:

1. The Standard Meridian of India is 82°30′ E.

2. Indian Standard Time is 5 hours 30 minutes ahead of UTC.

3. The Standard Meridian passes through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh.

4. India has a longitudinal extent greater than its latitudinal extent.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: India's latitudinal extent is approximately 8°4′ N to 37°6′ N, while its longitudinal extent is approximately 68°7′ E to 97°25′ E. Its longitudinal span is greater than its latitudinal span in angular terms, so statement 4 is actually correct.

Corrected Answer: D. All four

Q60. Regarding the Earth's interior, consider the following statements:

1. The continental crust is generally thicker than oceanic crust.

2. The outer core is liquid.

3. The inner core is believed to be solid.

4. The Mohorovičić discontinuity separates the mantle from the outer core.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Mohorovičić discontinuity, or Moho, separates the Earth's crust from the mantle. The Gutenberg discontinuity separates the mantle and outer core.

---

Section 4: Jammu and Kashmir General Knowledge (Questions 61–80)

Q61. Consider the following statements about the geographical features of Jammu and Kashmir:

1. The Kashmir Valley lies between the Pir Panjal Range and the Greater Himalayas.

2. The Jhelum is the principal river of the Kashmir Valley.

3. The Pir Panjal Range forms an important geographical barrier between the Kashmir Valley and Jammu region.

4. The Kashmir Valley is drained exclusively by west-flowing rivers entering the Arabian Sea directly.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Jhelum is part of the Indus river system. It flows through Kashmir and eventually joins the Chenab in Pakistan, rather than directly entering the Arabian Sea.

Q62. Regarding the Jhelum River, consider the following statements:

1. It originates from Verinag.

2. It passes through Srinagar.

3. Wular Lake is associated with its river system.

4. It originates from the Gangotri Glacier.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Jhelum originates from a spring at Verinag in the Anantnag district. Gangotri Glacier is associated with the Bhagirathi, not the Jhelum.

Q63. Consider the following statements about the Chenab River:

1. It is formed by the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga rivers.

2. The confluence occurs at Tandi in Himachal Pradesh.

3. The river flows through the Jammu region.

4. It is a tributary of the Ganga.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Chenab belongs to the Indus river system, not the Ganga system.

Q64. Regarding the lakes of Jammu and Kashmir, consider the following statements:

1. Dal Lake is situated in Srinagar.

2. Wular Lake is associated with the Jhelum River.

3. Mansar Lake is situated in the Jammu region.

4. Pangong Tso lies entirely within Jammu and Kashmir.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Pangong Tso is a transboundary lake extending across the Ladakh region and Tibet. It does not lie entirely within the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

Q65. Consider the following statements about the Mughal Road:

1. It connects the Kashmir Valley with the Poonch-Rajouri region.

2. It passes through the Pir Panjal region.

3. It is associated with the historic route between Srinagar and Poonch.

4. It directly connects Jammu with Leh.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Mughal Road links the Kashmir Valley with the Rajouri-Poonch region. It is not a direct Jammu-Leh route.

Q66. Regarding the Dogra dynasty, consider the following statements:

1. Maharaja Gulab Singh was the founder of the Dogra dynasty in Jammu and Kashmir.

2. The Treaty of Amritsar was signed in 1846.

3. Gulab Singh received Kashmir under the Treaty of Amritsar.

4. The treaty was signed between Gulab Singh and the East India Company.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: D. All four

Explanation: The Treaty of Amritsar was signed on 16 March 1846 between the British East India Company and Maharaja Gulab Singh following the First Anglo-Sikh War.

Q67. Consider the following statements regarding the Treaty of Lahore and the Treaty of Amritsar:

1. The Treaty of Lahore was signed in March 1846.

2. The Treaty of Amritsar followed the Treaty of Lahore.

3. The Treaty of Amritsar transferred Kashmir to Gulab Singh under specified conditions.

4. Both treaties were signed in the twentieth century.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Both treaties belong to 1846. The Treaty of Lahore was signed on 9 March and the Treaty of Amritsar on 16 March.

Q68. Regarding the historical geography of Jammu and Kashmir, consider the following statements:

1. Avantipur contains important ancient temple remains.

2. Martand Sun Temple is associated with Lalitaditya Muktapida.

3. Parihaspora was established by Lalitaditya.

4. Martand Sun Temple was constructed by Akbar.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Martand Sun Temple is an important eighth-century monument associated with the Karkota ruler Lalitaditya Muktapida, not Akbar.

Q69. Consider the following statements about the Kashmir Sufi and Rishi traditions:

1. Sheikh Noor-ud-Din Noorani is also known as Nund Rishi.

2. Lal Ded is associated with the Vakhs.

3. The Rishi tradition contributed to Kashmir's spiritual and cultural heritage.

4. Nund Rishi was a ruler of the Mughal Empire.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Nund Rishi was a revered Kashmiri saint and spiritual figure, not a Mughal emperor or ruler.

Q70. Regarding the political and constitutional history of Jammu and Kashmir, consider the following statements:

1. Article 370 was included in Part XXI of the Indian Constitution.

2. The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir came into force on 26 January 1957.

3. Article 35A was introduced through a Presidential Order in 1954.

4. Article 35A was part of the original Constitution adopted in 1950.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Article 35A was introduced through the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954. It was not part of the original Constitution of 1950.

Q71. Consider the following statements regarding the reorganisation of Jammu and Kashmir:

1. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act was passed in 2019.

2. The former state was reorganised into two Union Territories.

3. Jammu and Kashmir became a Union Territory with a legislature.

4. Ladakh became a Union Territory with a legislature.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The reorganisation created the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir, with a legislature, and Ladakh, without a legislature. The change took effect on 31 October 2019.

Q72. Regarding the Kashmir Valley's agriculture, consider the following statements:

1. Saffron cultivation is historically associated with Pampore.

2. Kashmir is known for the cultivation of apples.

3. Rice is an important food crop in the valley.

4. Saffron cultivation is primarily concentrated in the cold desert of Ladakh.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Pampore in the Kashmir Valley is particularly famous for saffron cultivation. It is not primarily concentrated in Ladakh.

Q73. Consider the following statements about the passes of Jammu and Kashmir and adjoining Himalayan regions:

1. Banihal Pass is associated with the Pir Panjal Range.

2. Zoji La connects the Kashmir Valley with the Ladakh region.

3. Razdan Pass connects Bandipora with the Gurez region.

4. Nathu La connects Jammu with Srinagar.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Nathu La is located in Sikkim on the India-China border. It does not connect Jammu and Srinagar.

Q74. Regarding the flora and fauna of Jammu and Kashmir, consider the following statements:

1. Hangul is also known as the Kashmir stag.

2. Dachigam National Park is associated with Hangul conservation.

3. Markhor is a wild goat species.

4. Hangul is a species of freshwater fish.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Hangul is a deer species and a major conservation symbol of Kashmir. Markhor is a wild goat.

Q75. Consider the following statements about the Indus Water Treaty:

1. It was signed in 1960.

2. The World Bank played a role in facilitating the treaty.

3. The eastern rivers are Ravi, Beas and Sutlej.

4. The western rivers are Indus, Jhelum and Chenab.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: All four statements are correct. The treaty allocates the eastern rivers primarily to India and the western rivers primarily to Pakistan, subject to specified provisions and uses.

Q76. Regarding the cultural heritage of Kashmir, consider the following statements:

1. The Kheer Bhawani temple is situated at Tulmulla.

2. Shankaracharya Temple is situated on a hill overlooking Srinagar.

3. Hazratbal Shrine is situated on the banks of Dal Lake.

4. Shankaracharya Temple was originally constructed by Maharaja Ranjit Singh in the twentieth century.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Shankaracharya Temple has ancient origins and is associated with much earlier historical periods. Its construction cannot be attributed to Maharaja Ranjit Singh in the twentieth century.

Q77. Consider the following statements regarding the Jammu region:

1. Bahu Fort is situated in Jammu city.

2. Raghunath Temple is an important religious site in Jammu.

3. Vaishno Devi Shrine is situated in the Trikuta Hills.

4. Mansar Lake is located in the Kashmir Valley.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Mansar Lake is located in the Jammu region, not the Kashmir Valley.

Q78. Regarding important institutions and locations in Jammu and Kashmir, consider the following statements:

1. Sher-e-Kashmir University of Agricultural Sciences and Technology of Kashmir has its main campus at Shalimar, Srinagar.

2. University of Kashmir is located in Hazratbal, Srinagar.

3. Jammu University is located in Jammu city.

4. AIIMS Jammu is situated in Kashmir Valley.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: AIIMS Jammu is located at Vijaypur in Samba district, Jammu division.

Q79. Consider the following statements about the Chenab Valley:

1. Kishtwar is associated with the Chenab Valley region.

2. The Chenab flows through Doda district.

3. The region has important hydropower potential.

4. The Chenab is a tributary of the Ravi.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Chenab is part of the Indus river system. It is not a tributary of the Ravi.

Q80. Consider the following statements about the climate of Jammu and Kashmir:

1. The Kashmir Valley generally experiences a temperate climate.

2. Jammu's plains experience hotter summers than the Kashmir Valley.

3. Ladakh is characterised by a cold desert climate.

4. Western disturbances contribute to winter precipitation in the Kashmir region.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: All four statements are correct. Western disturbances are particularly important for winter snowfall and precipitation in the western Himalayas.

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Section 5: General Science – Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Questions 81–100)

Q81. Consider the following statements about electromagnetic waves:

1. They can travel through a vacuum.

2. They are transverse waves.

3. Their speed in vacuum is approximately (3 \times 10^8) m/s.

4. All electromagnetic waves have the same frequency.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Electromagnetic waves have different frequencies and wavelengths. They share the same speed in vacuum.

Q82. Regarding the laws of motion, consider the following statements:

1. Newton's first law is also called the law of inertia.

2. Newton's second law relates force to the rate of change of momentum.

3. Newton's third law states that action and reaction act on the same body.

4. Momentum is conserved in an isolated system.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Action and reaction forces act on two different bodies. Momentum conservation follows from the absence of external resultant force on an isolated system.

Q83. Consider the following statements about heat transfer:

1. Conduction can occur in solids.

2. Convection requires bulk movement of a fluid.

3. Radiation requires a material medium.

4. The Sun transfers energy to Earth mainly through radiation.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Radiation can travel through a vacuum and does not require a material medium.

Q84. Regarding electricity, consider the following statements:

1. Ohm's law is represented by (V=IR).

2. Resistance of a metallic conductor generally increases with temperature.

3. Electric power can be expressed as (P=VI).

4. In a series circuit, the potential difference across each resistor is always equal.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: In a series circuit, current remains the same through each resistor. Voltage division depends on resistance values.

Q85. Consider the following statements about sound:

1. Sound cannot travel through a vacuum.

2. The pitch of sound depends mainly on frequency.

3. Loudness is related to the amplitude and intensity of sound.

4. Sound travels faster in air than in most solids.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Sound generally travels faster in solids than in gases because of differences in elasticity and density.

Q86. Regarding optics, consider the following statements:

1. A convex lens can produce real and virtual images.

2. A concave lens always produces a virtual, erect and diminished image for a real object.

3. The power of a lens is measured in dioptres.

4. A plane mirror produces a real image of an ordinary real object.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: A plane mirror produces a virtual, erect image. A convex lens can produce different types of images depending on object position.

Q87. Consider the following statements about atomic structure:

1. The atomic number equals the number of protons.

2. Isotopes have the same atomic number but different mass numbers.

3. Neutrons carry a positive electrical charge.

4. Electrons occupy regions around the nucleus.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Neutrons are electrically neutral. Protons carry a positive charge and electrons carry a negative charge.

Q88. Regarding chemical bonding, consider the following statements:

1. Ionic bonding involves electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions.

2. Covalent bonding involves sharing of electron pairs.

3. Metallic bonding involves delocalised electrons.

4. Sodium chloride is a typical covalent molecular compound.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Sodium chloride is predominantly an ionic compound formed through electrostatic attraction between sodium and chloride ions.

Q89. Consider the following statements about acids and bases:

1. A solution with pH below 7 is acidic at 25°C.

2. A solution with pH equal to 7 is neutral at 25°C.

3. Strong acids ionise completely or nearly completely in water.

4. All substances containing hydrogen are acids.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The presence of hydrogen alone does not make a substance an acid. Acidic behaviour depends on its chemical properties and ability to donate protons or accept electron pairs under relevant definitions.

Q90. Regarding oxidation and reduction, consider the following statements:

1. Oxidation involves loss of electrons.

2. Reduction involves gain of electrons.

3. Oxidising agents themselves undergo reduction.

4. Reduction always involves the addition of oxygen.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Reduction can occur through gain of electrons, loss of oxygen or gain of hydrogen. It does not always involve oxygen.

Q91. Consider the following statements about the human circulatory system:

1. The left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta.

2. The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood.

3. Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood.

4. The right atrium receives blood from the pulmonary veins.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood to the left atrium, not the right atrium.

Q92. Regarding human respiration, consider the following statements:

1. Gas exchange occurs mainly in the alveoli.

2. Haemoglobin transports most oxygen in blood.

3. Carbon dioxide is transported only in dissolved form.

4. The diaphragm contracts and flattens during normal inhalation.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Most carbon dioxide is transported in the form of bicarbonate ions, while smaller amounts are dissolved or bound to haemoglobin.

Q93. Consider the following statements about the human nervous system:

1. The cerebellum plays an important role in coordination and balance.

2. The medulla oblongata regulates several involuntary functions.

3. The spinal cord is part of the central nervous system.

4. Neurons transmit information exclusively through chemical signals.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Neurons use electrical impulses along their membranes and chemical neurotransmitters at many synapses.

Q94. Regarding genetics, consider the following statements:

1. DNA generally contains deoxyribose sugar.

2. RNA generally contains uracil instead of thymine.

3. Mendel conducted his famous inheritance experiments on pea plants.

4. A dominant allele must necessarily be more common in a population.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Dominance describes how an allele is expressed in a heterozygote. It does not indicate how frequent that allele is in a population.

Q95. Consider the following statements about enzymes:

1. Enzymes act as biological catalysts.

2. Most enzymes are proteins.

3. Enzymes increase activation energy.

4. Enzymes are generally substrate-specific.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions, thereby increasing reaction rates without being consumed in the overall reaction.

Q96. Regarding vitamins, consider the following statements:

1. Vitamin A deficiency can cause night blindness.

2. Vitamin C deficiency can cause scurvy.

3. Vitamin D is important for calcium metabolism.

4. Vitamin K plays an important role in blood clotting.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: All four statements are correct. Vitamin A supports vision, vitamin C supports collagen formation, vitamin D helps calcium regulation, and vitamin K is required for normal clotting.

Q97. Consider the following statements about plant physiology:

1. Xylem primarily transports water and minerals.

2. Phloem transports organic food substances.

3. Transpiration can contribute to the upward movement of water.

4. Stomata are present exclusively on roots.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Stomata are mainly found in aerial plant organs, especially leaves. They regulate gas exchange and water vapour loss.

Q98. Regarding cell biology, consider the following statements:

1. Mitochondria are important sites of aerobic respiration.

2. Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis.

3. Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes.

4. Mature mammalian red blood cells normally contain a nucleus.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Mature mammalian red blood cells lack a nucleus, allowing more space for haemoglobin.

Q99. Consider the following statements about microorganisms:

1. Viruses require host cells for replication.

2. Bacteria are prokaryotic organisms.

3. Antibiotics are effective against all viral infections.

4. Some bacteria are beneficial in nitrogen fixation.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Antibiotics target bacterial structures or processes and do not directly treat viral infections. Some bacteria, such as Rhizobium, participate in nitrogen fixation.

Q100. Regarding human hormones, consider the following statements:

1. Insulin is secreted by beta cells of the pancreas.

2. Thyroxine synthesis requires iodine.

3. Adrenaline is secreted by the adrenal medulla.

4. Glucagon lowers blood glucose levels.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Glucagon raises blood glucose levels, mainly by stimulating glycogen breakdown and glucose production in the liver. Insulin lowers blood glucose.

---

Section 6: Computer Science and Information Technology (Questions 101–120)

Q101. Consider the following statements about computer memory:

1. RAM is generally volatile memory.

2. ROM is generally non-volatile memory.

3. Cache memory is usually faster than main memory.

4. Virtual memory physically exists only inside the CPU registers.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Virtual memory uses secondary storage along with memory-management mechanisms to provide a larger logical address space. It is not located exclusively in CPU registers.

Q102. Regarding operating systems, consider the following statements:

1. A process is a program in execution.

2. A thread is the smallest unit of CPU execution scheduling in many operating systems.

3. A context switch involves saving and restoring execution state.

4. Multitasking means that a CPU can execute only one program during its entire lifetime.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Multitasking allows multiple tasks to share processor time through scheduling, or to execute in parallel on multiple cores.

Q103. Consider the following statements about computer networks:

1. TCP is connection-oriented.

2. UDP is connectionless.

3. TCP provides reliable, ordered byte-stream delivery.

4. UDP guarantees retransmission of every lost packet.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: UDP does not guarantee delivery, ordering or retransmission. These properties must be handled by the application if required.

Q104. Regarding IP addressing, consider the following statements:

1. IPv4 uses 32-bit addresses.

2. IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses.

3. IPv6 was designed partly to address IPv4 address-space limitations.

4. MAC addresses and IP addresses perform exactly the same function at the same network layer.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: IP addresses operate at the network layer, while MAC addresses are associated with link-layer addressing. They are not interchangeable.

Q105. Consider the following statements about database management systems:

1. A primary key uniquely identifies records in a table.

2. A foreign key establishes a relationship with a candidate key in another or the same table.

3. A primary key can contain duplicate values.

4. Normalisation helps reduce data redundancy and update anomalies.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: A primary key must be unique and cannot contain NULL values. Normalisation organises relational data to reduce redundancy and anomalies.

Q106. Regarding SQL, consider the following statements:

1. WHERE filters rows before grouping.

2. HAVING filters groups after grouping.

3. ORDER BY is used to sort query results.

4. DELETE and DROP perform exactly the same operation.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: DELETE removes rows, whereas DROP removes a database object such as a table. They are fundamentally different operations.

Q107. Consider the following statements about computer security:

1. Encryption converts readable data into an encoded form using a cryptographic process.

2. Hashing is generally designed to be a one-way operation.

3. Digital signatures can provide authenticity and integrity.

4. Symmetric encryption uses two different unrelated keys for encryption and decryption.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Symmetric encryption uses the same secret key for encryption and decryption. Asymmetric cryptography uses a public-private key pair.

Q108. Regarding the Internet and web technologies, consider the following statements:

1. HTTP is an application-layer protocol.

2. HTTPS uses TLS to secure communication.

3. DNS translates domain names into IP addresses.

4. HTML is primarily a database query language.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: HTML is a markup language used to structure web content. SQL is commonly used for relational database queries.

Q109. Consider the following statements about programming languages:

1. A compiler typically translates source code into another representation before execution.

2. An interpreter can execute program instructions without first producing a standalone native executable.

3. Python is commonly classified as a high-level programming language.

4. Assembly language is independent of machine architecture.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Assembly language is generally architecture-specific because its instructions correspond closely to a particular processor's instruction set.

Q110. Regarding data structures, consider the following statements:

1. A stack follows the LIFO principle.

2. A queue follows the FIFO principle.

3. Binary search requires sorted data when used on an ordinary array.

4. A linked list requires all elements to occupy consecutive memory locations.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Linked-list nodes can be stored at non-contiguous memory locations and connected through pointers or references.

Q111. Consider the following statements about computer architecture:

1. The ALU performs arithmetic and logical operations.

2. The Control Unit coordinates and controls processor operations.

3. Registers are generally faster than main memory.

4. The CPU cache is always slower than a hard disk.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: CPU cache is much faster than conventional hard-disk storage. Registers are among the fastest storage locations in a computer system.

Q112. Regarding number systems, consider the following statements:

1. The binary number system has base 2.

2. The hexadecimal system has base 16.

3. The decimal number 15 is represented as F in hexadecimal.

4. The binary number 1010 represents decimal 12.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Binary 1010 equals (8+0+2+0=10) in decimal, not 12.

Q113. Consider the following statements about Boolean algebra:

1. AND returns 1 only when all inputs are 1.

2. OR returns 1 when at least one input is 1.

3. XOR returns 1 when its two binary inputs differ.

4. NOT requires two binary inputs.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: NOT is a unary operator. It takes a single input and produces its logical complement.

Q114. Regarding computer networks and network devices, consider the following statements:

1. A router forwards packets between networks.

2. A switch commonly forwards Ethernet frames using MAC addresses.

3. A hub broadcasts incoming signals to all its other ports.

4. A repeater operates primarily by examining IP routing tables.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: A repeater regenerates or retimes signals at the physical layer. It does not use IP routing tables.

Q115. Consider the following statements about cloud computing:

1. IaaS provides virtualised computing infrastructure.

2. PaaS provides a platform for application development and deployment.

3. SaaS provides software applications as a service.

4. Cloud computing always requires users to own and maintain physical servers.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Cloud service providers operate the underlying infrastructure in many cloud models, reducing the need for users to own physical servers.

Q116. Regarding file systems, consider the following statements:

1. FAT32 has a maximum individual file size of approximately 4 GiB minus 1 byte.

2. NTFS supports file permissions and journaling.

3. File fragmentation can affect access performance on some storage systems.

4. Formatting a drive always guarantees permanent destruction of all previous data.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Ordinary formatting does not necessarily securely erase all previous data. Recovery may remain possible depending on the method used.

Q117. Consider the following statements about algorithms:

1. Binary search has (O(\log n)) time complexity on sorted random-access data.

2. Linear search has (O(n)) worst-case time complexity.

3. Merge sort has (O(n\log n)) time complexity in the standard implementation.

4. Bubble sort always has (O(\log n)) worst-case complexity.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Standard bubble sort has (O(n^2)) worst-case time complexity. Its best-case complexity can be (O(n)) with an early-exit optimisation.

Q118. Regarding spreadsheets, consider the following statements:

1. A relative cell reference changes when a formula is copied.

2. An absolute reference such as $A$1 remains fixed when copied.

3. The SUM function adds numerical values.

4. The COUNT function counts all non-empty text and numerical cells.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: COUNT counts cells containing numbers. COUNTA counts non-empty cells, including text.

Q119. Consider the following statements about software engineering:

1. Unit testing focuses on individual components.

2. Integration testing checks interactions between components.

3. Regression testing checks whether changes have introduced new defects.

4. Acceptance testing is always performed before unit testing.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Acceptance testing normally occurs at a later validation stage. Unit testing is generally performed during component development.

Q120. Regarding artificial intelligence and machine learning, consider the following statements:

1. Supervised learning uses labelled training data.

2. Unsupervised learning can identify patterns in unlabelled data.

3. Overfitting occurs when a model performs well on training data but poorly on unseen data.

4. Deep learning necessarily requires every training dataset to be labelled.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Deep learning can be used in supervised, unsupervised and self-supervised learning. Labelled data is not universally required.

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Section 7: Indian Economy (Questions 121–140)

Q121. Consider the following statements about GDP:

1. GDP measures the value of final goods and services produced within a country's domestic territory during a specified period.

2. Intermediate goods are generally excluded to avoid double counting.

3. GDP at market prices includes product taxes and excludes product subsidies.

4. GDP measures only the income earned by citizens living within the country.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: GDP is based on production within domestic territory, irrespective of the nationality of the producers. The fourth statement incorrectly describes GDP.

Q122. Regarding inflation, consider the following statements:

1. Inflation refers to a sustained increase in the general price level.

2. Deflation refers to a sustained decline in the general price level.

3. Stagflation combines high inflation with economic stagnation.

4. Disinflation means that prices are necessarily falling.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Disinflation means the inflation rate is slowing down. Prices may still be rising, but at a lower rate.

Q123. Consider the following statements about monetary policy:

1. The RBI conducts monetary policy in India.

2. Repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends short-term funds to banks against eligible securities under the applicable framework.

3. An increase in the repo rate can make borrowing more expensive.

4. Monetary policy has no influence on inflation.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Monetary policy influences liquidity, credit conditions, aggregate demand and inflation. Its effects depend on transmission through the financial system.

Q124. Regarding fiscal policy, consider the following statements:

1. Fiscal policy relates to government taxation and expenditure.

2. A fiscal deficit occurs when total expenditure exceeds total receipts excluding borrowings.

3. A revenue deficit indicates that revenue expenditure exceeds revenue receipts.

4. Fiscal deficit and revenue deficit are identical concepts.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Fiscal deficit measures the government's overall borrowing requirement, while revenue deficit focuses on the revenue account.

Q125. Consider the following statements about taxation:

1. Direct taxes are generally imposed directly on income or wealth.

2. GST is an indirect tax.

3. Corporate income tax is a direct tax.

4. A progressive tax system applies a lower tax rate to higher income brackets.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: A progressive tax system generally applies higher marginal rates to higher income brackets.

Q126. Regarding the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:

1. The RBI commenced operations on 1 April 1935.

2. It was nationalised in 1949.

3. It acts as the banker to the government.

4. It was established under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The RBI was established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, not the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

Q127. Consider the following statements about balance of payments:

1. The current account records trade in goods and services, primary income and secondary income.

2. The capital account in the broader balance-of-payments framework records capital transfers and transactions in non-produced, non-financial assets.

3. Foreign direct investment is generally recorded in the financial account.

4. A current account deficit necessarily means that a country is insolvent.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: A current account deficit can be financed through capital and financial inflows, reserves or other adjustments. It does not automatically indicate insolvency.

Q128. Regarding unemployment, consider the following statements:

1. Structural unemployment can result from a mismatch between skills and available jobs.

2. Seasonal unemployment is associated with seasonal variations in employment.

3. Disguised unemployment means that removing some workers does not significantly reduce total output.

4. Frictional unemployment is always caused by technological obsolescence.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Frictional unemployment generally arises during transitions between jobs or when individuals search for suitable employment.

Q129. Consider the following statements about poverty measurement:

1. Absolute poverty refers to deprivation below a defined minimum standard.

2. Relative poverty is assessed in relation to the living standards of a society.

3. Multidimensional poverty includes non-income dimensions.

4. Income poverty and multidimensional poverty always produce identical classifications.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Multidimensional poverty can include indicators relating to health, education and living standards. It need not produce the same classification as income-based measures.

Q130. Regarding banking, consider the following statements:

1. CRR is the portion of a bank's net demand and time liabilities maintained as cash balances with the RBI.

2. SLR requires banks to maintain specified liquid assets.

3. Increasing CRR can reduce the lendable resources of banks.

4. CRR and SLR are maintained exclusively in the form of government securities.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: CRR is maintained in cash with the RBI. SLR may be maintained in specified liquid assets, including eligible securities.

Q131. Consider the following statements about national income:

1. NNP is obtained by deducting depreciation from GNP.

2. Per capita income is calculated by dividing national income by population.

3. Real GDP is adjusted for price changes.

4. Nominal GDP always rises when real output rises.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Nominal GDP depends on both output and prices. It can fall even when real output rises if prices decline sufficiently.

Q132. Regarding agricultural economics, consider the following statements:

1. Minimum Support Price is announced by the government for specified crops.

2. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices recommends MSPs.

3. MSP guarantees that every farmer sells every unit of produce at that price.

4. Procurement operations are undertaken by designated agencies.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: MSP announcements do not automatically guarantee procurement of every unit of produce from every farmer.

Q133. Consider the following statements about the banking system:

1. A scheduled bank is included in the Second Schedule of the RBI Act, 1934.

2. Commercial banks create credit through their lending activities.

3. A non-performing asset is a loan or advance classified as non-performing under applicable RBI norms.

4. Every loan overdue by one day automatically becomes an NPA.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Under the general RBI income-recognition and asset-classification framework, a term loan ordinarily becomes an NPA when interest or principal remains overdue for more than 90 days, subject to applicable rules and exceptions.

Q134. Regarding economic development, consider the following statements:

1. Economic growth usually refers to an increase in real output.

2. Economic development includes qualitative improvements in living standards.

3. Human Development Index includes health, education and income dimensions.

4. A higher GDP automatically guarantees a higher Human Development Index.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Economic growth alone does not guarantee improvements in health, education or income distribution. HDI captures broader development dimensions.

Q135. Consider the following statements about international economic institutions:

1. IMF primarily works towards international monetary cooperation and financial stability.

2. World Bank institutions provide development financing and related assistance.

3. WTO deals with international trade rules.

4. IMF and WTO are specialised agencies of the United Nations in exactly the same legal sense.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The IMF and WTO have different institutional relationships with the UN system. The WTO is not a specialised agency of the UN.

Q136. Regarding public finance, consider the following statements:

1. Capital expenditure generally creates assets or reduces liabilities.

2. Revenue expenditure generally does not create assets directly.

3. Interest payments are normally classified as revenue expenditure.

4. All government expenditure is classified as capital expenditure.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Government expenditure includes both revenue and capital expenditure. Interest payments are classified as revenue expenditure.

Q137. Consider the following statements about the GST Council:

1. It is established under Article 279A.

2. It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.

3. Its recommendations are constitutionally binding in every circumstance on Parliament and state legislatures.

4. The Union Finance Minister and the Union Minister of State in charge of Finance are members.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: In the Mohit Minerals judgment (2022), the Supreme Court clarified that GST Council recommendations have persuasive value and are not binding legislation in themselves.

Q138. Regarding exchange rates, consider the following statements:

1. Currency depreciation under a floating exchange-rate system can make imports more expensive in domestic currency.

2. Currency appreciation can make imports cheaper, other things remaining equal.

3. A depreciation always improves the trade balance immediately.

4. Exchange rates can be influenced by interest rates and capital flows.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: A depreciation does not always improve the trade balance immediately. The J-curve effect and price elasticities can delay or limit the adjustment.

Q139. Consider the following statements about financial inclusion:

1. Financial inclusion aims to provide access to affordable financial services.

2. Jan Dhan accounts are associated with the financial inclusion initiative.

3. Financial inclusion is limited exclusively to providing stock-market trading accounts.

4. Access to credit, insurance and payments can support financial inclusion.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Financial inclusion covers a broad range of affordable and accessible financial services, including banking, savings, credit, insurance and payments.

Q140. Regarding the informal economy, consider the following statements:

1. Informal employment may exist both within informal enterprises and outside them.

2. Informal workers may lack social security protection.

3. The informal sector and informal employment are perfectly interchangeable concepts.

4. Informal economic activities are necessarily illegal.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: A. 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Informality is not synonymous with illegality. Informal employment is a broader labour-market concept than employment solely within informal-sector enterprises.

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Section 8: Environment and Ecology (Questions 141–160)

Q141. Consider the following statements about ecosystems:

1. Producers convert inorganic substances into organic matter using an energy source.

2. Consumers depend directly or indirectly on producers.

3. Decomposers recycle nutrients.

4. Energy flow in an ecosystem is perfectly cyclic.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Nutrients cycle through ecosystems, but energy flows through trophic levels and is progressively dissipated as heat.

Q142. Regarding food chains and ecological pyramids, consider the following statements:

1. The pyramid of energy is always upright.

2. The pyramid of biomass can be inverted in certain aquatic ecosystems.

3. The 10% law is associated with Lindeman.

4. Energy available generally increases at higher trophic levels.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Energy generally decreases at successive trophic levels due to energy losses during transfer.

Q143. Consider the following statements about biodiversity:

1. Genetic diversity refers to variation within a species.

2. Species diversity concerns the variety of species.

3. Ecosystem diversity concerns the variety of habitats and ecological systems.

4. Biodiversity is measured exclusively by the total number of individual animals.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Biodiversity includes genetic, species and ecosystem-level variation. It cannot be reduced to a count of individual animals.

Q144. Regarding protected areas, consider the following statements:

1. National Parks generally provide a higher degree of protection than many other protected-area categories.

2. Wildlife Sanctuaries can permit certain regulated human activities under applicable laws.

3. Biosphere reserves may include core, buffer and transition zones.

4. Every biosphere reserve is automatically a national park under the Wildlife Protection Act.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: A biosphere reserve is a distinct conservation and sustainable-development framework. It is not automatically a national park.

Q145. Consider the following statements about climate change:

1. Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas.

2. Methane has a higher global warming potential than carbon dioxide over commonly used assessment periods.

3. The greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon.

4. Human activities have no influence on atmospheric greenhouse gas concentrations.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Human activities, including fossil fuel combustion, deforestation and agriculture, have significantly increased atmospheric greenhouse gas concentrations.

Q146. Regarding ozone depletion, consider the following statements:

1. Stratospheric ozone absorbs much of the Sun's harmful ultraviolet radiation.

2. Chlorofluorocarbons can contribute to ozone depletion.

3. The Montreal Protocol addresses ozone-depleting substances.

4. Tropospheric ozone is always beneficial to human health.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Ground-level ozone is an air pollutant that can damage respiratory health and vegetation. Its effects differ from those of protective stratospheric ozone.

Q147. Consider the following statements about ecological succession:

1. Primary succession begins in an area without previously developed soil.

2. Secondary succession occurs where an ecosystem existed previously but was disturbed.

3. Pioneer species are generally among the first organisms to colonise a newly available habitat.

4. Ecological succession always ends in exactly the same climax community in every climatic region.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Successional pathways and final communities vary with climate, soil, disturbances and other ecological conditions.

Q148. Regarding environmental pollution, consider the following statements:

1. Eutrophication is associated with nutrient enrichment of water bodies.

2. Biomagnification refers to increasing concentrations of certain substances at higher trophic levels.

3. Biochemical Oxygen Demand indicates the oxygen required by microorganisms to decompose biodegradable organic matter.

4. Higher BOD always indicates cleaner water.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Higher BOD generally indicates greater biodegradable organic pollution and can lead to oxygen depletion in water.

Q149. Consider the following statements about conservation:

1. In-situ conservation protects organisms within their natural habitats.

2. Ex-situ conservation includes seed banks and zoological parks.

3. Wildlife corridors can help maintain habitat connectivity.

4. Captive breeding is always a form of in-situ conservation.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Captive breeding outside the natural habitat is generally an ex-situ conservation method.

Q150. Regarding international environmental conventions, consider the following statements:

1. The Convention on Biological Diversity was adopted in 1992.

2. CITES regulates international trade in endangered species.

3. The Ramsar Convention concerns wetlands.

4. The Kyoto Protocol was adopted before the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The UNFCCC was adopted in 1992, while the Kyoto Protocol was adopted in 1997.

Q151. Consider the following statements about forests:

1. Tropical evergreen forests generally occur in areas of high rainfall.

2. Mangrove forests are adapted to saline or brackish coastal environments.

3. Thorn forests are commonly found in arid and semi-arid regions.

4. Coniferous forests are characterised exclusively by broad, flat leaves.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Many conifers have needle-like or scale-like leaves, often adapted to cold or dry conditions.

Q152. Regarding renewable energy, consider the following statements:

1. Solar photovoltaic systems convert light directly into electrical energy.

2. Wind energy is an indirect form of solar energy.

3. Hydropower depends on the water cycle.

4. Nuclear fission is classified as a renewable energy source.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Nuclear fission uses finite nuclear fuel and is not conventionally classified as renewable energy.

Q153. Consider the following statements about wetlands:

1. Wetlands can provide flood regulation.

2. Wetlands may act as carbon sinks.

3. Wetlands provide habitat for numerous species.

4. All wetlands are permanently covered by deep water.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

ALSO READ:JKSSB Advanced Computer MCQs 2026: 100 Toughest Statement-Based Questions with Answers

Explanation: Wetlands may be permanently or seasonally saturated, and many are shallow or periodically inundated.

Q154. Regarding environmental impact assessment, consider the following statements:

1. EIA examines likely environmental consequences of proposed projects.

2. It can help identify mitigation measures.

3. It is relevant to informed decision-making.

4. EIA is conducted only after a project has been completed.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Environmental impact assessment is generally a pre-project decision-making process, although monitoring can continue during and after implementation.

Q155. Consider the following statements about endangered species:

1. The IUCN Red List assesses the extinction risk of species.

2. Critically Endangered is a higher threat category than Endangered.

3. Extinct in the Wild means a species survives only in cultivation, captivity or outside its former natural range.

4. Vulnerable species are considered extinct.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Vulnerable is a threatened category, but it does not mean that the species is extinct.

Q156. Regarding the nitrogen cycle, consider the following statements:

1. Nitrogen fixation converts atmospheric nitrogen into biologically usable forms.

2. Nitrification involves conversion of ammonia or ammonium into nitrite and nitrate.

3. Denitrification converts nitrate into gaseous nitrogen compounds.

4. All plants directly absorb atmospheric nitrogen gas through their leaves as their principal nitrogen source.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Most plants obtain nitrogen through their roots in forms such as nitrate and ammonium.

Q157. Consider the following statements about sustainable development:

1. It considers the needs of present and future generations.

2. It involves environmental, social and economic dimensions.

3. It requires the complete elimination of all industrial activity.

4. Efficient resource use can support sustainable development.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Sustainable development seeks to balance development and environmental protection; it does not require eliminating all industrial activity.

Q158. Regarding air pollution, consider the following statements:

1. Particulate matter PM2.5 has a diameter of 2.5 micrometres or less.

2. Sulphur dioxide can contribute to acid rain.

3. Nitrogen oxides can contribute to photochemical smog.

4. Carbon monoxide binds strongly to haemoglobin.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: Carbon monoxide forms carboxyhaemoglobin, reducing the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity.

Q159. Consider the following statements about coral reefs:

1. Reef-building corals have a symbiotic relationship with photosynthetic algae.

2. Coral bleaching can occur when corals lose their symbiotic algae or their pigments.

3. Rising sea temperatures can contribute to coral bleaching.

4. Coral reefs develop best in highly turbid, cold and deep ocean water.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Reef-building corals generally flourish in warm, shallow, clear and sunlit marine waters.

Q160. Regarding the ozone layer and greenhouse effect, consider the following statements:

1. Ozone depletion and global warming are identical environmental processes.

2. Certain greenhouse gases absorb outgoing infrared radiation.

3. Ozone depletion increases exposure to harmful ultraviolet radiation.

4. The greenhouse effect is entirely a human-created phenomenon.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The natural greenhouse effect is essential for Earth's temperature. Human activities have enhanced it, while ozone depletion is a separate atmospheric problem.

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Section 9: Science and Technology (Questions 161–180)

Q161. Consider the following statements about satellites:

1. Geostationary satellites orbit above the Equator.

2. Their orbital period is approximately equal to Earth's rotational period.

3. They appear stationary relative to a fixed point on Earth's surface.

4. Every artificial satellite is geostationary.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Artificial satellites can occupy many types of orbits, including low Earth, polar, medium Earth and geostationary orbits.

Q162. Regarding space exploration, consider the following statements:

1. Chandrayaan-1 helped confirm evidence of water or hydroxyl on the Moon.

2. Mangalyaan was India's first interplanetary mission to Mars.

3. Aditya-L1 is a mission dedicated to studying the Sun.

4. Chandrayaan-3 achieved a successful soft landing on the Moon in 2023.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: All four statements are correct. Chandrayaan-3 achieved its historic lunar landing on 23 August 2023.

Q163. Consider the following statements about nuclear energy:

1. Nuclear fission involves splitting a heavy atomic nucleus.

2. Nuclear fusion involves combining light nuclei.

3. The Sun generates energy mainly through nuclear fusion.

4. Nuclear fission and nuclear fusion are identical processes.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Fission splits heavy nuclei, while fusion combines light nuclei. Both can release enormous amounts of energy through mass-energy conversion.

Q164. Regarding biotechnology, consider the following statements:

1. Recombinant DNA technology combines DNA sequences from different sources.

2. PCR is used to amplify specific DNA sequences.

3. CRISPR-Cas systems can be used for gene editing.

4. All genetically modified organisms are necessarily harmful to human health.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The safety of genetically modified organisms is assessed case by case, considering the organism, modification, intended use and available evidence.

Q165. Consider the following statements about artificial intelligence:

1. Machine learning is a subset of artificial intelligence.

2. Neural networks are inspired in part by biological neural systems.

3. Natural language processing deals with human language.

4. Artificial intelligence systems are necessarily conscious.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: AI capabilities do not imply consciousness. Current AI systems can perform complex tasks without establishing that they possess subjective awareness.

Q166. Regarding semiconductors, consider the following statements:

1. Silicon is a widely used semiconductor material.

2. Doping introduces controlled impurities into a semiconductor.

3. A p-type semiconductor has holes as its majority charge carriers.

4. An n-type semiconductor has holes as its majority charge carriers.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Electrons are the majority carriers in n-type semiconductors, while holes are the majority carriers in p-type semiconductors.

Q167. Consider the following statements about lasers:

1. LASER stands for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation.

2. Laser light is generally highly directional.

3. Stimulated emission is fundamental to laser operation.

4. All laser beams are necessarily invisible to the human eye.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Lasers can emit visible, infrared or ultraviolet radiation. Visibility depends on the wavelength and power.

Q168. Regarding fibre-optic communication, consider the following statements:

1. It uses light to transmit information.

2. Total internal reflection is important in conventional optical fibres.

3. Optical fibres can offer high bandwidth.

4. Optical fibres transmit information primarily through electrical current in copper conductors.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Optical fibres guide light through a core surrounded by cladding. They do not depend on electrical current in copper conductors for signal transmission.

Q169. Consider the following statements about blockchain technology:

1. A blockchain is a type of distributed ledger.

2. Cryptographic hashing can help link blocks.

3. Every blockchain must be publicly accessible without restrictions.

4. Blockchain systems can be designed as public or permissioned networks.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Blockchains can be public, private or consortium-based. Public accessibility is not a universal requirement.

Q170. Regarding cybersecurity threats, consider the following statements:

1. Phishing attempts to deceive users into revealing sensitive information.

2. Ransomware can encrypt files and demand payment.

3. A firewall can help control network traffic.

4. Multi-factor authentication relies exclusively on a password.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Multi-factor authentication uses two or more distinct authentication factors, such as knowledge, possession or inherence.

Q171. Consider the following statements about robotics:

1. Sensors collect information from the environment.

2. Actuators produce physical movement or action.

3. Feedback systems can improve control accuracy.

4. Every robot must have a human-like appearance.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Robots can take many forms, including industrial arms, autonomous vehicles, drones and medical systems.

Q172. Regarding quantum computing, consider the following statements:

1. A qubit can exist in a superposition of basis states.

2. Quantum entanglement is an important quantum phenomenon.

3. Quantum computers are expected to outperform classical computers on every computational task.

4. Measurement of a qubit produces a classical outcome.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Quantum computers may offer advantages for particular classes of problems, but they are not universally faster than classical computers.

Q173. Consider the following statements about GPS:

1. GPS is a satellite-based navigation system.

2. A GPS receiver uses signals from multiple satellites to determine its position.

3. GPS is operated by the United States.

4. GPS requires a continuous two-way transmission between the receiver and every satellite to calculate location.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Ordinary GPS receivers passively receive satellite signals. They do not need to transmit their location to satellites to calculate a position.

Q174. Regarding remote sensing, consider the following statements:

1. Remote sensing can collect information without direct physical contact with the target.

2. Satellites can be used for Earth observation.

3. Active sensors emit their own energy towards a target.

4. Passive sensors always emit microwave pulses to detect objects.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Passive sensors detect naturally available radiation, such as reflected sunlight or emitted thermal energy. Active sensors transmit their own energy.

Q175. Consider the following statements about 5G technology:

1. 5G is designed to support enhanced mobile broadband.

2. It can support massive machine-type communications.

3. It can support ultra-reliable low-latency communication applications.

4. Every 5G network must use only millimetre-wave frequencies.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: 5G can operate across low-, mid- and high-frequency bands. Millimetre-wave spectrum is not mandatory for every 5G network.

Q176. Regarding vaccines, consider the following statements:

1. Vaccines stimulate immune responses that can provide protection against diseases.

2. Some vaccines contain inactivated pathogens.

3. mRNA vaccines deliver instructions that enable cells to produce an antigen.

4. Every vaccine provides lifelong immunity after one dose.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The duration and strength of vaccine-induced protection vary. Some vaccines require multiple doses or boosters.

Q177. Consider the following statements about nanotechnology:

1. Nanotechnology involves structures and materials at extremely small scales.

2. Nanomaterials can exhibit properties different from bulk materials.

3. Surface-area-to-volume ratio can become significant at the nanoscale.

4. Nanotechnology is restricted exclusively to computer chips.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Nanotechnology has applications in medicine, electronics, materials science, energy, environmental engineering and many other fields.

Q178. Regarding nuclear radiation, consider the following statements:

1. Alpha particles have a positive charge.

2. Beta-minus particles are electrons.

3. Gamma radiation consists of high-energy electromagnetic photons.

4. Gamma rays have a greater penetrating ability than alpha particles in general.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: Alpha particles have low penetrating power, beta particles have intermediate penetrating power, and gamma radiation is generally highly penetrating.

Q179. Consider the following statements about bioinformatics:

1. It uses computational methods to analyse biological data.

2. DNA sequence analysis is one of its applications.

3. It can support protein structure and function research.

4. Bioinformatics is unrelated to genetics and molecular biology.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Bioinformatics integrates biology, mathematics, statistics and computer science to analyse complex biological information.

Q180. Regarding scientific measurement, consider the following statements:

1. The SI unit of force is Newton.

2. The SI unit of power is Watt.

3. The SI unit of electric charge is Coulomb.

4. The SI unit of frequency is Joule.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The SI unit of frequency is Hertz (Hz). Joule is the SI unit of energy.

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Section 10: Mixed General Knowledge and Conceptual Questions (Questions 181–200)

Q181. Consider the following statements about international organisations:

1. The United Nations was established in 1945.

2. The headquarters of UNESCO is in Paris.

3. The International Court of Justice is located in The Hague.

4. The headquarters of the World Health Organization is in New York.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: WHO headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland.

Q182. Regarding important international groupings, consider the following statements:

1. BRICS originally comprised Brazil, Russia, India and China.

2. South Africa joined the grouping in 2010.

3. The G20 includes both advanced and emerging economies.

4. The European Union is not represented in the G20.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The European Union is a member of the G20. The African Union also became a permanent member in 2023.

Q183. Consider the following statements about important books and authors:

1. Arthashastra is traditionally attributed to Kautilya.

2. Rajatarangini was written by Kalhana.

3. Ain-i-Akbari was written by Abul Fazl.

4. Baburnama was originally written in Persian.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Baburnama was originally written in Chagatai Turkic, not Persian.

Q184. Regarding Indian classical dances, consider the following statements:

1. Bharatanatyam originated in Tamil Nadu.

2. Kathak is associated with North India.

3. Sattriya originated in Assam.

4. Mohiniyattam is a classical dance form of Odisha.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Mohiniyattam is associated with Kerala. Odissi is the classical dance form associated with Odisha.

Q185. Consider the following statements about awards:

1. The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded in Oslo.

2. The other Nobel Prizes are awarded in Stockholm.

3. The Bharat Ratna is India's highest civilian award.

4. The Padma Awards are military decorations.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Padma Awards are civilian honours, not military decorations.

Q186. Regarding important international days, consider the following statements:

1. World Environment Day is observed on 5 June.

2. International Yoga Day is observed on 21 June.

3. World AIDS Day is observed on 1 December.

4. International Literacy Day is observed on 5 September.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: International Literacy Day is observed on 8 September, not 5 September.

Q187. Consider the following statements about Indian awards and institutions:

1. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is associated with Indian cinema.

2. The Sahitya Akademi Award recognises literary contributions.

3. The Jnanpith Award is a major literary honour.

4. The Arjuna Award is primarily given for achievements in scientific research.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Arjuna Award recognises outstanding achievements in sports.

Q188. Regarding Indian sports, consider the following statements:

1. The Durand Cup is associated with football.

2. The Ranji Trophy is associated with first-class cricket.

3. The Thomas Cup is associated with men's badminton.

4. The Davis Cup is associated with field hockey.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Davis Cup is an international men's team tennis competition. The hockey equivalent among major international tournaments includes the Hockey World Cup and FIH Pro League.

Q189. Consider the following statements about important Indian institutions:

1. ISRO was established in 1969.

2. DRDO was established in 1958.

3. BARC is associated with nuclear research.

4. CSIR was established after ISRO.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: CSIR was established in 1942, before ISRO, which was established in 1969.

Q190. Regarding important Indian constitutional and national symbols, consider the following statements:

1. The National Anthem was written by Rabindranath Tagore.

2. The National Song is Vande Mataram.

3. Vande Mataram was written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.

4. The National Emblem is derived from the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: All four statements are correct. The National Emblem was adopted on 26 January 1950.

Q191. Consider the following statements about important international geographical features:

1. Mount Kilimanjaro is located in Tanzania.

2. The Andes are located along the western side of South America.

3. The Alps extend across several European countries.

4. The Rocky Mountains are primarily located in Africa.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Rocky Mountains are located in North America, extending through Canada and the United States.

Q192. Regarding important historical events, consider the following statements:

1. The French Revolution began in 1789.

2. The Russian Revolution of 1917 led to the end of the Tsarist monarchy.

3. The First World War began in 1914.

4. The Second World War ended in 1943.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Second World War ended in 1945. Germany surrendered in May and Japan in September 1945.

Q193. Consider the following statements about basic scientific units:

1. Kelvin is the SI base unit of thermodynamic temperature.

2. Ampere is the SI base unit of electric current.

3. Mole is the SI base unit of amount of substance.

4. Candela is the SI base unit of luminous intensity.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: All four are SI base units. The seven SI base units also include metre, kilogram and second.

Q194. Regarding the human body, consider the following statements:

1. The liver produces bile.

2. The pancreas has both endocrine and exocrine functions.

3. The kidneys help regulate water and electrolyte balance.

4. The spleen is the primary organ responsible for producing insulin.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Insulin is produced by beta cells in the pancreas, not the spleen.

Q195. Consider the following statements about important Indian rivers and dams:

1. Bhakra Dam is built on the Sutlej River.

2. Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi.

3. Tehri Dam is associated with the Bhagirathi River.

4. Sardar Sarovar Dam is built on the Godavari River.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Sardar Sarovar Dam is constructed on the Narmada River in Gujarat.

Q196. Regarding important Indian institutions and their locations, consider the following statements:

1. The Supreme Court of India is located in New Delhi.

2. The headquarters of the RBI is in Mumbai.

3. The headquarters of SEBI is in Mumbai.

4. The headquarters of the Election Commission of India is in Chennai.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Election Commission of India is headquartered in New Delhi.

Q197. Consider the following statements about scientific discoveries:

1. Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin.

2. Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen discovered X-rays.

3. Edward Jenner pioneered vaccination against smallpox.

4. Louis Pasteur discovered the structure of DNA.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The double-helix structure of DNA was described by James Watson and Francis Crick, with crucial contributions from Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins.

Q198. Regarding important environmental and geographical facts, consider the following statements:

1. The Amazon rainforest is primarily located in South America.

2. The Congo Basin contains the world's second-largest tropical rainforest.

3. The Great Barrier Reef is located off the coast of Australia.

4. The Dead Sea is the world's deepest freshwater lake.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Dead Sea is a hypersaline lake, not a freshwater lake. It is famous for its exceptionally low elevation.

Q199. Consider the following statements about important economic and development concepts:

1. Human capital includes the knowledge, skills and health of individuals.

2. Physical capital includes machinery, equipment and infrastructure.

3. Productivity refers to the relationship between output and inputs.

4. Higher labour productivity necessarily means that total employment must decline.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Higher productivity can increase output, reduce costs and create opportunities for employment. Its effect on total employment depends on several economic factors.

Q200. Consider the following statements about research methodology and scientific reasoning:

1. A hypothesis is a testable proposed explanation.

2. A controlled experiment attempts to isolate the effect of an independent variable.

3. Correlation necessarily establishes causation.

4. Reproducibility is an important principle of scientific research.

Which statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All four

Correct Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Correlation indicates an association between variables but does not, by itself, establish a cause-and-effect relationship. Scientific conclusions require appropriate evidence and methods.

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Final Preparation Strategy for JKSSB and Other Competitive Examinations

These 200 questions are designed to help candidates move beyond ordinary one-line GK preparation. Statement-based questions demand careful reading, conceptual understanding and the ability to identify partially incorrect statements.

How to practise these questions effectively

1. Read every statement independently: Do not assume that all statements in a question are either correct or incorrect.

2. Identify the incorrect portion: Sometimes a single word such as only, always, exclusively, necessarily or never makes an otherwise correct statement false.

3. Understand the explanation: Memorising the answer without understanding the concept will not help with modified questions.

4. Maintain a mistake notebook: Record confusing facts, constitutional articles, scientific concepts and computer terminology.

5. Revise difficult questions: Revisit incorrect questions after a few days rather than simply attempting new questions.

Important subjects to prioritise

Subject	Important preparation areas
Indian Polity	Articles, amendments, writs, constitutional bodies
History	Ancient kingdoms, medieval administration, freedom movement
Geography	Rivers, climate, soils, physical geography
J&K GK	Rivers, lakes, history, culture, passes, institutions
General Science	Human physiology, physics laws, chemistry concepts
Computer Science	Networking, DBMS, OS, cybersecurity, programming
Economy	RBI, inflation, taxation, national income
Environment	Biodiversity, ecology, climate conventions
Science & Technology	ISRO, biotechnology, AI, space science

Final Word For JKSSB Aspirants

Competitive examinations are not won by memorising thousands of random facts. They require the ability to understand concepts, eliminate incorrect options and make accurate decisions under examination pressure.

Use this 200-question practice set as a serious revision resource for JKSSB, JKPSC, SSC and other competitive examinations.

Keep practising, analyse your mistakes and focus on conceptual clarity. Consistency and accuracy matter more than simply attempting a large number of questions.